[Robert Goodman]

Originally Posted by Manny A

I'm having a hard time envisioning your play. Did F6 actually step on second base? If so, how the heck does her throw to F3 hit the retired R1 who steps towards the middle of the infield? That would be a horribly bad throw.

But if F6 didn't go to second base, and she throws the ball directly to first from where she fielded it, then R1 deviating into the path of the throw can be easily judged as a runner intentionally interfering with a thrown ball. At that point, R1 is still a runner, and not a retired runner, so interference with a thrown ball requires intent. And if she deviated towards the middle of the infield instead of running directly to second, then it's going to look intentional.

Chapmaja needs to clarify the situation. Was F6 trying to take advantage of R1's abandonment of baserunning by throwing directly to 1B?