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Excellent question by SC UMP. But, the variable answers tend to be confusing. It seems to me that it doesn't matter if R1 touches or misses 2B, if the ball goes to first and BR is put out, there will never be a force.
Greymule, will you take us through your reasoning using the OBR or Fed rules to justify a forced out at any time in this example? I realize that on a sustained appeal, the out is as if the ball beat R1 to 2B,and if a third out, everything in the game ends -- including R3's attempt to score. But, who decides if that ball theoretically went to 1B or 2B when the appeal is granted, and how could anyone objectively say that a forced out depends on whether the "miss" was before or after the out at 1B. It just seems to me that if BR is put out at 1B, there could never be a forced play anywhere at any time.
Shoot! I'm confused just trying to ask the question!
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Marty
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