[youngump]

I'll ask this in the form of a test question; USA rules please.

BR hits an obvious double to left center. F3 is watching the ball roll and steps into BR knocking her down onto first. The umpire calls obstruction and judges that absent the obstruction the runner would have reached 2nd base.
he ball is relayed into second and then to the pitcher. Seeing the ball already in the infield by the time she gets up, the BR stays on first.

The umpire calls time and awards BR 2nd base. Is the ruling correct?

A) No, the umpire should not make an award because the obstructed runner was not put out and no award is made unless an obstructed runner is put out.
B) No, the umpire should not award 2nd base because the runner made no attempt at 2nd.
C) Yes, the umpire should always award one base on obstruction.
D) Yes, the umpire should award the base that would have been reached absent the obstruction at the end of playing action (or sooner if an obstructed runner is put out).

I had a very high confidence answer to this question in my mind and went to the new-association-where-I-just-moved-to training meeting and got a very different answer from the local powers that be. So I went to the rule book and it wasn't nearly as conclusive as I thought it would be. (NFHS is much clearer with a case play). So I'm putting the question to you and asking not just for an answer but for a citation to go with it.