[EricH]

Originally Posted by RKBUmp

If you are so convinced you are right then why even bother asking the question.

I never claimed that the rule meant definitively that any runner hit by any thrown ball committed interference. I was asking for rules clarifications one way or another.

I'm not convinced anyone is right because no one had said "here's what rule X says" or "such and such rule clarification says." I'm simply looking for umpires who actually have some knowledge to provide it, instead of "hey, obviously this can't be what is meant by the rule."