[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally posted by greymule
What would R1 have to do in this situation to be judged intentionally interfering with a DP?

If the ball had been hard hit to F5, you'd have a case.

I've been trying to think of a way to call R1 out for USC and then call the lead runner out for interference by somebody already out. However, the out on R1 would kill the play.

It seems that a player can sometimes get away with deliberate, unsportsmanlike interference and cost his team only the 1 out the defense would have gotten anyway.

Being removed from 3B for a stupid move with no outs will probably get that player a fair amount of grief.

In this case, the interference costs the offense the runner on 3B, but it is possible for such a play to help the offense:

Abel on 3B, Baker on 1B, no outs. Charles grounds to F3, who starts to throw home to get Abel. Baker, seeing that Abel will be out at home, runs over F3. With the interference call, the offense has Abel on 3B, Charles on 1B with 1 out, instead of Baker on 2B and Charles on 1B with 1 out.

Pretty dumb play on behalf of F3. If R2 can run over F3, that means F3 had an easy DP at 1B while still holding R1 on 3B. INT on that play attain the same result.