[Tru_in_Blu]

I'm thinking that a mis-application could occur on an overthrow if the umpire claimed that it was only 1 base or the infamous "1 & 1" that we hear about on occasion.

If an umpire explained something like that, I'd say a rule was mis-applied. As such, it could be protestable.

But in the event of obstruction, if the umpire judges what bases get awarded, there are no hard and fast "rules" to apply here. That's not to say that an umpire's judgment couldn't be egregiously wrong, but it is still their judgment.

I'm open to other thoughts on this matter.