Here is one situation from the NFHS that is related:
Not sure which year this came from, but as cited above by Billy (from 2016):
Quote:
Originally Posted by BillyMac
*4.29 SITUATION B: A1 has the ball for a throw-in. A1 rolls the ball to A2 who stops the ball by putting his/her foot on top of it, then bends over and picks up the ball. RULING: Kicking violation on A2 for intentionally striking the ball with his/her foot. (9-4)
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I suggest that the action in this case is far from "striking" the ball if you go by the normal definition of striking. Yet, merely putting the foot on the ball is sufficient to be considered striking according to this play.
There is an NCAA case directly regarding this situation. The rules are identical, so it would seem, short of anything to suggest otherwise, the intent is the same:
Quote:
Kicking the Ball
A.R. 196. A1 is on the floor with the ball lodged between the upper part of the legs. B1 attempts to gain possession of the ball by placing two hands firmly on the ball; however, A1 applies vice-like force with the upper legs, which prevents B1 from gaining possession of the ball.
RULING: A1 has committed a kicking violation. Kicking the ball is defined as striking the ball intentionally with any part of the leg. The intent of this rule is to prevent a player from gaining an advantage by using any part of the leg. Since A1 was not holding the ball in his hands, B1’s firm placement of his hands on the ball does not constitute a held ball.
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