Quote:
Originally Posted by BryanV21
There was no bounce. Can we please stick with the play being discussed here.
B1 touches the ball in the air, after jumping from the FC. Why is B1 not the last to touch the ball while it had FC status?
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Because they say so.
You want logic. But most agree the interp is illogical. But the interp says that by touching the ball that has FC status, the player in the backcourt is simultaneously the last to touch the ball with FC status and the first to touch with BC status. So it's a violation. Because they say so. You can read and reread and reread the text of the rule, and you'll never get there. It's what the interp says, whether it makes any sense or not.