Camron:
If I read Freddy's play correctly, B1 commits an IPF against A1 while A1 is in the Act of Shooting. B2 then commits a CF against A2 before A1's FGA becomes Dead (e.g. the FGA is successful or the FGA is not successful), and I am thinking that B2's CF is committed during rebounding action for a possible missed FGA. If that is the case, then Freddy's play is definitely a FMF, and that each foul would carry its own penalty and would be penalized in the order that they occurred, with the Ball being put into play as if the last foul in the sequence was the only foul was the only foul committed.
That said, if B1 and B2 committed their fouls at the same time, by definition these fouls would still be a FMF, meaning that each foul would carry its own penalty and would be penalized in the order that they occurred, with the Ball being put into play as if the last foul in the sequence was the only foul was the only foul committed. But here is the problem in this second scenario: Which foul was the first foul in the sequence?
I really do not feel like climbing up into the attic and go through 47 years of Casebook Plays and Approved Rulings to see if this second scenario has been covered (I would bet dollars to donuts that it has.), but I am getting too old, to do it right now,
.
We have two choices: 1) Penalize B1's IPF first (A1 shoots FTs with no one on the Free Throw Lane) and then B2's CF second A2 shooting Bonus FTs as if this was the only foul that occurred); or 2) Penalize B2's CF foul (A2 does not shoot any FTs and then A1 shoots FTs with no one on the Free Throw Lane followed by Team A receiving the ball for a Throw-in nearest the spot of B1's IPF).
I am inclined to choose (2) because I believe that B1's IPF is the influencing factor.
MTD, Sr.