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If BR had already reached 1st at TOI (as well as R1 has already reached home), what play has R2 interfered with?? Doesn't there have to be a play on someone to have an interference call?
Well, if there was a play, then BR is ruled out (irrespective of the timing of the announcement) effectively at the TOI, too, along with the dead ball at that instant, making the BR unable to reach the base; and hasn't reached first base safely.
Is this substantially different than the BR missing first base, and that appeal being the resultant third out well after R2 scored?
Unless it was Vickie or John Bennett as moderator, I believe your mod was wrong, too.
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Steve
ASA/ISF/NCAA/NFHS/PGF
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