[JRutledge]

If K has punted, and R is returning the kicked ball, according the the NF, they got the ball with clean hands. That is the logic behind PSK in the first place. This is in the the NF Rules CD and in some of the writings about the new rule. There is a play on the CD that shows this is not an "automatic" double foul. This is also how it was explained at both Rules meetings I attended. This would be no different if we were talking about an intercepted pass. If B fouls after they have intercepted the ball, you do not call any foul by A a double foul if it happen before the interception.

Now unless you show me something other than what you have stated, I am not buying it. And really I am not trying to have a debate on it, I just want evidence that R cannot decline K's foul. You have shown me nothing other than saying, "it is because PSK does not apply." That does not make any sense to me. But then again, life goes on.

Peace