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It is the way the Fed wants the play interpreted, but I don't like it. I hope they change the interpretation to say no violation because B was the last to touch it. We have discussed this before.
The extrapolation of this ruling leads to some very disturbing conclusions, my favorite being A1 is dribbling in back court. B1, who is completely in the front court of A reaches across the division line and bats the ball off of the leg of A1. Ruling would be violation if the above interpretation stands. Why? A has team control, ball obtains FC status from the touch of B1, ball touches A1 who is in backcourt. The fed wants us to interpret that as touching a ball with FC status in back court, causing the violation. Yet, A never brought the ball into FC.
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I only wanna know ... |
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Change the play to read ball going OOB instead of backcourt. OOB violation on A, B gets the ball. Same concept in your original sitch.
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ok I can't find it....
What is the logic behind this being a BC violation?? BBR I searched and didn't see the threads discussing it.
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The officials lament, or the coaches excuses as it were: "I didn't say it was your fault, I said I was going to blame you" |
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http://www.nfhs.org/web/2007/10/2007...s_interpr.aspx We've discussed in length in the past. There are some of us that think this in an absolutly idiotic interpretion of the spirit and intent of the backcourt rule. There are others that feel it is correct, and have not yet seen the error of their way of thinking. I'm not sure where I stand on it, but I'll call it as written.
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It's an interpretation that's contradicted by the rules. Stoopid monkeys! |
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Hercules. http://www.ebaumsworld.com/video/watch/75903
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