Run scores ... or not... or yes it does 2 innings later

[Dakota]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Where does the rules make such a statement?

Which statement are you refering to?

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

and no subsequent play was affected by the call.

Demonstrably untrue over the history of this game. Teams play differently when they are behind v. tied or ahead. They take more risks, etc. The reversal of the ruling to score the run took away from the losing team the opportunity to make those more aggressive / risky plays

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

...but JJ is a she...

Thanks for the correction. I knew that, but didn't catch the mistake in my post.