chuck chopper Last week I saw where the 3B Ump was hit by a throw from the catcher after F5 botched it. R1 then ran home as the ball went off into foul territory. The crew then made R1 return to 3rd base. This is not Umpire Interference as far as I know so does anyone know why this is ?
CecilOne Manny A wroteSounds like a bad call to me, based on your description. ditto. Ump was part of the field, just re-emphasized in another topic, although Chuck said that too.
IRISHMAFIA chuck chopper wroteLast week I saw where the 3B Ump was hit by a throw from the catcher after F5 botched it. R1 then ran home as the ball went off into foul territory. The crew then made R1 return to 3rd base. This is not Umpire Interference as far as I know so does anyone know why this is ? Seems every year we see this more. I could understand TWP or a complicated interpretation, but some a things most JO umpires I know would get right the first time
AtlUmpSteve Seems to me the one possible correct answer has been ignored by all. If the PU interfered with the catcher's pickoff throw, which THEN was muffed by F5, hit the U3, etc., then it would be umpire interference and the runner would be returned to 3B.
Manny A AtlUmpSteve wroteSeems to me the one possible correct answer has been ignored by all. If the PU interfered with the catcher's pickoff throw, which THEN was muffed by F5, hit the U3, etc., then it would be umpire interference and the runner would be returned to 3B. I actually thought about that, but when the OP said, "The crew then made R1 return to third base," I assumed there was some sort of pow-wow between the three umpires before the decision was made. If it was interference by the PU, he/she should have killed play when the ball got past F5, and then make the call unilaterally.
KNK The reason R1 was sent back to third base is because the ball went into a dead ball area. She is only awarded 2 bases from the time of the throw.
MD Longhorn KNK wroteThe reason R1 was sent back to third base is because the ball went into a dead ball area. She is only awarded 2 bases from the time of the throw.So ... the runner was at first base when the ball was thrown to third to get her out?
Manny A KNK wroteThe reason R1 was sent back to third base is because the ball went into a dead ball area. She is only awarded 2 bases from the time of the throw. The "R1" in this case refers to the runner closest to home, not the runner that started at first base. R1 for this play started out at third base.
IRISHMAFIA chuck chopper wroteLast week I saw where the 3B Ump was hit by a throw from the catcher after F5 botched it. R1 then ran home as the ball went off into foul territory. The crew then made R1 return to 3rd base. This is not Umpire Interference as far as I know so does anyone know why this is ? Do you remember what game that was?
chuck chopper I thought it was Florida State/Michigan. The TV did not catch any plate Ump interference, and the announcers did not comment on why the runner was sent back to 3rd. Frankly I don't remember the play very well. I thought it was a simple steal from 2nd to 3rd.
CecilOne chuck chopper;935166the announcers did not comment on why the runner was sent back to 3rd. [/QUOTE wrote I bet you were surprised! ! 🙄 😀