need a little help I have confused myself

[marvin]

I am not sure the the rule cited covers the situation since it states that the runner was hit by a batted ball, which did not occur in the situation in the OP.

I did not find anything in the rule book that directly addresses the situation in the OP, but I do think that the call was correct.

Every situation that might be considered interference that is mentioned in the books (rule book and case book) has no violation IF the runner was on a base and there was no intentional act of interference. The call made was consistent with the rules even if they do not mention this specific case.