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Fed rules, B1 hits grounder to F6. Throw is well in time but a bit high, hitting top of F3's mitt and popping nearly straight up. F3 leaps up to catch ball and does so, but her foot comes down entirely on orange side of double first base, just before B1 hits bag on the seam between orange and white. What's the right call? Would it have made a difference if B1 had hit only the white of the bag?
It was not a game-turning call, but I called B1 safe. My thought was that the throw was not from foul territory, nor was it really the throw that drew F3 into foul territory. In my mind, she could have either made the original catch with a bit more care or caught the rebound without leaping onto the orange. I didn't find much on the doublefirst base in the rules or casebook - maybe I missed it. I know the throw from foul territory lets F3 use the orange (and B1 use the white or orange), but what about a throw from fair territory drawing the fielder off the white? Nick |
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Good call even if B1 touched all white. However, in that particular case, B1 would then be subject to an appeal by the offense for missing the base as long as you don't call time and it is done prior to B1 (now R1) returning to the base. |
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NFHS Rule 8-2-12, Exceptions Art. 13 Penalty covers FEDS ruling on double base situtations. glen AFA, ASA, LL, NFHS, NSA, PONY, USSSA, & http://www.mansun-nl.com/smilies/mecry.gif USFA |
I think that if F3 was using the orange part when she wasn't supposed to be (say, to make an extra-long base so she could grab an errant throw), I would rule that BR could touch only the white.
Since it is proper for F3 to use the orange base on a play from the foul side of the line, I would not require BR to figure out, on the way to 1B, whether F3's being on the orange was legal in that situation or not. The fact is, F3 is there, and BR is merely trying to avoid a collision. |
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