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IRISHMAFIA Sat Feb 04, 2012 01:00am

Quote:

Originally Posted by EsqUmp (Post 820049)
I just had an extremely long conversation with a well respected baseball and softball rules interpreter and author.

Here's what I confirmed/learned.

Check your 2004 ASA rule book, if you still have one laying around. ASA changed their interpretation of the definition of a force as it pertained to an appeal play. Another person already quoted it as follows: "On an appeal play, the force out is determined when the appeal is made, not when the infraction occurred."

Prior to 2004, that was not ASA's rule/interpretation.

Well, not really. Prior to 2004 the same RS (POE, at that time) read, "If the batter-runner is put out, or is the first out of multiple outs on the same play, this would eliminate all force outs".

So, actually, if the BR was retired prior to the appeal, there is not force out to be had In 2004, they ADDED "On an appeal play, the force out is determined when the appeal is made, not when the infraction occurred". This wording basically expanded the interpretation to include any situation where the forced has been relieved prior to the appeal.

And, to me, it makes sense. During a live ball, the force is always relieved anytime a trailing runner is retired. Why wouldn't it be the same on a dead ball appeal?

MrRabbit Sat Feb 04, 2012 01:35am

Quote:

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA (Post 820085)
Well, not really. Prior to 2004 the same RS (POE, at that time) read, "If the batter-runner is put out, or is the first out of multiple outs on the same play, this would eliminate all force outs".

So, actually, if the BR was retired prior to the appeal, there is not force out to be had In 2004, they ADDED "On an appeal play, the force out is determined when the appeal is made, not when the infraction occurred". This wording basically expanded the interpretation to include any situation where the forced has been relieved prior to the appeal.

And, to me, it makes sense. During a live ball, the force is always relieved anytime a trailing runner is retired. Why wouldn't it be the same on a dead ball appeal?

Not arguing that is why I posted it after it was ask of me on the NFHS side.
NFHS does it and it is what I thought I would find in ASA but did not.
So why not on a dead ball in ASA?
Hopefully it can be explained or changed if necessary?
Looking to hear more and learn.

CecilOne Sat Feb 04, 2012 08:28am

Quote:

Originally Posted by EsqUmp (Post 820060)
For example:

Would it be logical to apply a "retroactive" force out in the following play.

R3 on 3rd. R1 on 1st. 1 out. Ball hit to right field. R3 scores (nothing else going on her R3). R1 misses 2nd and starts to 3rd base. Meanwhile, F9 fires the ball in and guns out BR going for a double. BR is out #2. Now that BR is out of the picture, there is no preceding runner holding R1 back. How can R1 logically be prevented from returning all the way to 1st base? That isn't to say it would be rational for R1 to go back to 1st base. Rather, the argument is used to justifying the rule. The only way to keep her back from 1st is to have a runner "force" her from it. That doesn't exist here.

That's one example. I have a few more after my conversation tonight.

I might be able to add to that number if the double jacks are-a-flow'n when we meet up tomorrow night for a state meeting.

Stay tuned.

Although R1 and R3 would be out for being on the wrong bases. Sounds like your authority might have the initials JM.

EsqUmp Sat Feb 04, 2012 08:59am

Quote:

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA (Post 820085)
Well, not really. Prior to 2004 the same RS (POE, at that time) read, "If the batter-runner is put out, or is the first out of multiple outs on the same play, this would eliminate all force outs".


No. ASA added the new language in order to change the rule application. Prior to 2004, ASA's interpretation was the same as NHSF & NCAA.

Doing what ASA does when it doesn't want to give a lengthly explanation for something, they just highlighted it without really addressing it.

Someone once asked me (perhaps it was you) about my accusation that ASA changes rules or interpretations without really addressing them. Here's an example.

IRISHMAFIA Sat Feb 04, 2012 09:53am

Quote:

Originally Posted by EsqUmp (Post 820152)
No. ASA added the new language in order to change the rule application. Prior to 2004, ASA's interpretation was the same as NHSF & NCAA.

Then explain the premise of this portion of the POE:

"If the batter-runner is put out, or is the first out of multiple outs on the same play, this would eliminate all force outs".

IRISHMAFIA Sat Feb 04, 2012 09:55am

Quote:

Originally Posted by CecilOne (Post 820146)
Although R1 and R3 would be out for being on the wrong bases. Sounds like your authority might have the initials JM.

Ya think? :rolleyes: :D

IRISHMAFIA Sat Feb 04, 2012 09:57am

Quote:

Originally Posted by MrRabbit (Post 820091)
So why not on a dead ball in ASA?

So why not what?

MrRabbit Sat Feb 04, 2012 12:16pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA (Post 820160)
So why not what?

I agree why not?

IRISHMAFIA Sat Feb 04, 2012 12:19pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by MrRabbit (Post 820193)
I agree why not?

Okay, gotcha.

CecilOne Sat Feb 04, 2012 12:27pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by MrRabbit (Post 819683)
NFHS / ASA Rules...

R1 on third, R2 on second, R3 on first and 1 out.
B5 hits safely to right field.
R1 scores,
R2 misses third base and scores.
R3 is thrown out at third.
Playing action ends defensive team makes a dead ball appeal R2 missed third on her way home.
Umpire declares R2 out.
How many runs score?

So after all the roundabouts, R1 (lead runner on 3rd base ;) would score in ASA; and no runs would score elsewhere (NCAA, NFHS, USSSA, PONY).

CecilOne Sat Feb 04, 2012 12:31pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by SamG (Post 819938)
But even if R2 IS a force out, the run (R1) would still score, wouldn't it? Let's change the situation a little...
Bases loaded, one out.
Ground ball to F6... she throws to F5 for the force on R2.
F5 sees R3 making it to 2nd, so tries to make a play on B/R at first.
B/R is safe and F3 throws back to F5 who tags R3 trying to steal.

There's still three outs and R1 still scores. So why does the timing matter (in the OP)? What am I missing?

Yes, 3 outs, but in this scenario, the third out is not force or BR (tags R3 trying to steal); so the run scoring or not is determined by the timing of R1 getting to HP before the out or not.

IRISHMAFIA Sat Feb 04, 2012 12:56pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by CecilOne (Post 820195)
So after all the roundabouts, R1 (lead runner on 3rd base ;) would score in ASA; and no runs would score elsewhere (NCAA, NFHS, USSSA, PONY).

ASA - yes.

Looks like NCAA is no run. Don't know about others, but let me add another little tidbit.

When it comes down to multiple decisions on a single play, are we not usually told to address each portion(s) of the play in the order in which each occurred? Question would be, I guess, would you address the missed base or the appeal first.

HugoTafurst Sat Feb 04, 2012 03:18pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA (Post 820198)
ASA - yes.

Looks like NCAA is no run. Don't know about others, but let me add another little tidbit.

When it comes down to multiple decisions on a single play, are we not usually told to address each portion(s) of the play in the order in which each occurred? Question would be, I guess, would you address the missed base or the appeal first.

I don't think that on appeal, it's unreasonable to address the status of the runner at the time the base was missed. That makes the most intuitive sense to me.
However if the rule states otherwise, thats what I enforce....

One of the reasons for getting the big bucks is to know how the Romans want it called.
:D

EsqUmp Sun Feb 05, 2012 07:43am

Quote:

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA (Post 820158)
Then explain the premise of this portion of the POE:

"If the batter-runner is put out, or is the first out of multiple outs on the same play, this would eliminate all force outs".

Do you mean to tell me that ASA just decided to add that language for the hell of it? Of all of the rules they have they highlighted this one and wrote about this one. What sense does that make?

The information I have is from the people responsible for the change. Plus it just so happens to coincide with when a few changes were made to the national staff.

IRISHMAFIA Sun Feb 05, 2012 08:49am

Quote:

Originally Posted by EsqUmp (Post 820364)
Do you mean to tell me that ASA just decided to add that language for the hell of it? Of all of the rules they have they highlighted this one and wrote about this one. What sense does that make?

The information I have is from the people responsible for the change. Plus it just so happens to coincide with when a few changes were made to the national staff.

This non-responsive post makes absolutely no sense other than to create a strawman argument. Answer the question. Please explain the statement that was in the POE prior to 2004 if it wasn't for any other purpose that to state that there can be no "force out" on an appeal if the BR is retired on a play with multiple outs.

I don't think you can.


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