Ball contacts runner, defense shorthanded

NCASAUmp · #1 (**permalink**) Wed Jul 29, 2009, 10:40pm

How would you rule on this?

No outs, R1 on 2B, R2 on 1B. Defense is playing shorthanded (no F3), and F4 is playing behind 2B, expecting a pulled hit. B3 hits a sharp grounder towards where F3 generally would have been, striking R2 in the leg. R2 was trying to avoid the ball. F4 was nowhere near the ball, no other fielder had a chance to make any outs. All runners advance only one base.

steveshane67 · #2 (**permalink**) Wed Jul 29, 2009, 11:13pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by NCASAUmp

How would you rule on this?

No outs, R1 on 2B, R2 on 1B. Defense is playing shorthanded (no F3), and F4 is playing behind 2B, expecting a pulled hit. B3 hits a sharp grounder towards where F3 generally would have been, striking R2 in the leg. R2 was trying to avoid the ball. F4 was nowhere near the ball, no other fielder had a chance to make any outs. All runners advance only one base.

Just out of curiosity, who was covering 1st normally, the pitcher, or did F4 normally play in the 3.5 hole and cover?

8-7-k

Quote:

When a runner is struck with a fair untouched batted ball while not in contact with a base and before it passes another infielder excluding the pitcher, or if it passes an infielder and another fielder has an opportunity to make an out.

But I believe the intent of the rule was written as though a fielder must be there to have an opp. to make a play.

By letter of the rule, I guess one could make a strong case for an out sense the ball never passed an IFer, but going by intent, Id rule nothing.

NCASAUmp · #3 (**permalink**) Wed Jul 29, 2009, 11:15pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by steveshane67

Just out of curiosity, who was covering 1st normally, the pitcher, or did F4 normally play in the 3.5 hole and cover

Honestly, this didn't actually happen, but it ALMOST did in one of my games a while back. Got me thinking.

NCASAUmp · #4 (**permalink**) Wed Jul 29, 2009, 11:18pm

To more specifically answer your question, no one was covering 1B. They were more concerned with getting the lead runners and minimize the other team's scoring.

Skahtboi · #5 (**permalink**) Wed Jul 29, 2009, 11:53pm

This is SP, right? So...why didn't they just pull one of their outfielders to play in the F3 spot?

azgreg · #6 (**permalink**) Thu Jul 30, 2009, 01:01am

I have nothing, the ball did not pass another infielder or another fielder who an opportunity to make an out.

#7 (**permalink**) Thu Jul 30, 2009, 01:03pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Skahtboi

This is SP, right? So...why didn't they just pull one of their outfielders to play in the F3 spot?

Drunk team involved?

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