What would you have done?

[youngump]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

You just said it, THERE IS NO PITCH FOR THE BATTER TO CONTACT!!!

Mike, I'm still wrestling with this one a little. I generally agree with the approach, but please let me play Devil's Advocate for a moment. I understand that there can be no pitch because the umpire had called the play over. But if there's no pitch for the batter to swing at then there's no illegal pitch for the batter to swing at. In which case, why are you awarding a ball?
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AVANDIA CLASS ACTION

[Tru_in_Blu]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Where is that in the umpire manual? You shouldn't be saying anything.



I don't understand what that has to do with the fact that the pitcher violated 6.1.C & 6.7



You just said it, THERE IS NO PITCH FOR THE BATTER TO CONTACT!!!

I say a lot of things that aren't in the manual. I might say "Wow! That was a great catch." or after F3 throws home for a tag play at the plate when s/he had a play at 1B for the third out: "Gee, I didn't expect that." I think you've said it before that the rule book can't contain every possible situation and scenario or it would be many volumes long. If it's in the book, you should say it, example: verbalize obstruction. But if it's not in the book, that doesn't mean that you can't say it.

For the 2 rules that you've reference, the ball will need to be delivered to the batter in order for the violation to be called. At that point a PU can call "Illegal!" If the batter does nothing, a ball will be awarded to the batter. However, if the batter swings the IP is canceled. So at that point, you'd have the result of the swing. PU called an IP, and the batter chose to ignore that information and take his chances anyway.

That only leaves the addtional call of no pitch. Since the IP has now become moot, the only thing to deal with is the no pitch. The batter hit the ball, but because of the no pitch call, it doesn't count. Bring 'em back, do it over.

Seems very simple to me...