Need some rule clarification
 

Last night we were playing 1 ball 1 strike do to time constraints. The lights didn't come on in time and the game needed to be suspended.

Bottom of the 3rd, 1 out, runners on 2nd and 3rd. The ball is hit infield fly and missed, the runner on 2nd runs to 3rd where he is tagged out. As soon as the tag is made the ump calls "Dead Ball" letting the runner return to 2nd and the batter take 1st. Leaving us with bases loaded and 1 out.

Anybody have input?

Did the umpire happen to extend his left arm at any time?

Not that anyone saw! Even in the event of a delayed call wouldn't the batter be out in that position.

Did the runner from second base get blocked by the defense? Did he have to run around someone?

And to answer your second question, no. Why would he be? There's no infield fly with runners only on 2nd and 3rd.

Why? The ball wasn't caught. It is not an infield fly situation. The only reasonable explanation, assuming the umpire knew what he was doing, is an obstruction call saving the runner off of 2B.

No the runner wasn't blocked, he was tagged while both players were standing on 3rd.

I do understand the Infield Fly rule I'm just trying to get a grasp on Blue's call. I had a discussion with him on the Dead Ball rule and during that discussion 2 players were ejected and I never got a solid answer from him on the call.

Okay, but why did you think the BR should have been declared out?

I guess that's my backwards way of fair thinking. My opinion is that the runner on 2nd who was tagged should have been out and I'm unsure how a dead ball would be called in that situation.

OK....but he wasn't and I think the only thing we can think here is that the umpire ruled obstruction (or kicked the crap out of the call, which is certainly possible).

All of that being said....why, for any reason, would the batter be out in this situation? I'm completely failing to understand that comment. :confused:

The batter being out is a comment that I should not have made. I'm over thinking it. Another thought I had is that the ump called dead ball possibly thinking our player could have caught the ball and dropped it in order to make the double play.

That was not the case at all and every intent was made to catch it but a double play was certainly possible.

In ASA, that call can't be made without a runner on 1B at the start of the play.

I know that the infield fly can't be called but what would the "dead ball" call represent and why would both runners be safe?

I believe Welpe already answered this. It sounds like the runner on 2B was obstructed on their way to 3B. Maybe the shortstop or third baseman got in their way, enough that it caused the runner to deviate from their path. If that's the case, then the ball is immediately dead, and the runner is awarded the base they would have received had there been no obstruction. If a runner is obstructed, they may not be put out between the two bases where the obstruction occurred. In this case, if the runner would never have reached 3B, then the award would be 2B, and we put the runner back on 2B.

Or maybe the umpire screwed up. Without seeing the play, we can only speculate.

Thanks guys, I just spoke with the program director and the director of the umpire association.

That was a botched call and we continued under protest before another pitch was thrown so the game is going to be rescheduled.

So now I guess the question is why would you run from second on an infield fly ball with 1 out and no one forced.

Brain f@rt. It's rec ball, and I've seen plenty of those in rec ball!