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Wed May 08, 2002, 10:42pm
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How far into the outfield should the ball go before it's no longer under the IFR...????
I heard one umpire discussing it yesterday and stated that for him "As long as the infield can back up to a reasonable position under the ball, he considers it under the IFR. If an infielder turns his/her back to the ball to get under it, then he doesn't consider it under the IFR... What do y'all think of that rationale?
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Chuck Lewis Ronan, MT Give a man a fish and you'll feed him for a day. Teach a man to fish and he could be gone every weekend. 
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