Interference on double play?
 

I think I know the answer to this one but during a discussion we had three different opinions.

ASA .... runners on 1st and 2nd, no outs. Batter hits ball into a 6-4-3 double play. Runner from first clearly interferes with 2nd baseman's throw to first but the play is made anyway so we have a double play. Who's out?

If the runner was out when they interfered, then we've got the lead runner out. If the runner was not out when they interfered then we've got a double play. I don't know how you could see that on a 6-4-3 though. Anybody?

The OP mistakenly said that the runner at first was thrown out. Runners cannot be thrown out during a dead ball.
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Speaking ASA, youngump is correct.

Well if the INT is on the R2 AFTER they have been put out which from reading your post I assume is the case, then we have INT by a retired runner and the runner closest to home is out. Unless she is lightening fast and had already scored at the time of the INT that would be R1, and BR would be on first. Once the INT is called it is a dead ball so the "out" you got on the BR at first didn't happen.

Well I must type slow, cause the two other posts weren't there when I started this post, so now I just say, ya what they said!

OK, got to ask. "Clearly interferes" but the play was still made? How clearly was it? I mean did he just not move out of the way or waive like a mad man? Tackle the 2nd baseman? With the play being made, it would have to be the latter.

If interference, dead ball, runner out closest to home. Under a runner interfering after being put out.

So 2 outs batter on first.

For sake of argument, let's say R2 swats the ball down.

youngump is right.