Rule 8-7-C (ASA) Clarification

[kyleflan]

As I was reading through my rulebook earlier, I came across a rule that I guess I've never paid much attention to. It's under rule 8, Batter-Runner and Runner. The rule reads as follows:

When on a force play, a fielder contacts the base while holding the ball, or tags the runner before the runner reaches the base. If the forced runner, after touching the next base, retreats for any reason towards the base first occupied, the force play is reinstated and the runner may again be put out if the defense tags the runner or the base to which the runner is forced.

Now this is quite the hypothetical situation here, but let's imagine R1 on 2B and R2 on 1B. B3 hits a ball to an infielder and is retired at 1B on the force. F3 then throws the ball to F5. R1, prior to reaching 3B, retreats to 2B, since the force is no longer in effect. However, R2 has already advanced to B2, and is occupying it. R2 noticing R1, decides to retreat back to first to open the base up for R1.

Now, can the defense simply throw the ball to first and it be a force out, since R2 was a forced runner that touched the next base? Or must the defense tag R2?

I'm sure this situation is unlikely to occur as outlined above in a game, but I just like to make sure I have all the bases covered. (Pun intended)

Also, another question regarding force plays. Yesterday I had a local 14U game. I was the BU behind F6 with runner on 3B. D3K, batter runs to first. F3 bobbles the ball, then drops it as she falls to the ground to retrieve it. F3 secures the ball in the glove, crawls to 1B and touches the base with her free hand. Close play. I call the runner out. The offensive coaches didn't give me a hard time, as I knew both of them fairly well, but between innings wanted some clarification. The first thing they wondered was why 1B was my call since I was behind F6, to which I replied that all bases were my responsibility and perhaps maybe the league should hire three umpires per game (In good humor of course). Next, one of the coaches wanted to know how the runner was out whenever the fielder touched the base with her free hand. This got my mind going, as I've never really thought about this, but simply knew on a force that fielder must tag the base. I told her it was essentially the same as F3 catching the ball and tagging the base with her foot.

Was I right on this call?

-Kyle

[wadeintothem]

If the force is off, it is not reinstated. The rule applies as follows: R1@1B.. single, R1 goes to 2B, BR safe @1B.. R1 retreats back to 1B (for whatever reason), the force at 2b is back on.

If the BR is out in the above, the force is not reinstated at 2B.

[wadeintothem]

As to your second question.. of course its the right call and its exactly the same as the foot, but, face, or whatever else she can get on the bag for a "force" out (no tangents about 1B forces from the peanut gallery please). All that is required by rule is that the fielder is in possession of the ball and she touches the base.

[whiskers_ump]

Originally Posted by wadeintothem

As to your second question.. of course its the right call and its exactly the same as the foot, but, face, or whatever else she can get on the bag for a "force" out (no tangents about 1B forces from the peanut gallery please). All that is required by rule is that the fielder is in possession of the ball and she touches the base.

Years ago, someone on this board stated it like this.

If F3 has the ball, falls, and her pony tail is resting on the base, the runner
is out.

[wadeintothem]

Originally Posted by whiskers_ump

Years ago, someone on this board stated it like this.

If F3 has the ball, falls, and her pony tail is resting on the base, the runner
is out.

I would LOVE to call that

[NCASAUmp]

Originally Posted by wadeintothem

I would LOVE to call that

So would I, especially since I mostly call men's games! We've got a few mullets around here.