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Gary

If you would I would appreciate it. Does it show anything that refers to where in the rule book a EFFECT happens on this as stated the key with the test showed Rule 1 Infielder definition and Rule 4-1C(6) which neither says anything about EFFECT if it would happen

Also you probably know by now but if not our meeting next Sunday is at 1:00

Thanks

Don

Don,

The references given are as follows:

Rulebook - 4-1-C[5]plus Infielder definition
Casebook - 1-72B

I don't have my rulebook or casebook with me, so I haven't verified their references.

The explanation listed prior to the references reads, "The umpire should have corrected the positioning prior to the pitch. At the conclusion of the play and upon discovery before a pitch to the next batter, allow the offensive coach the option of accepting the result of the play, or declare a no pitch which nullifies the play and allows the batter to bat again, assuming the count prior to the batted ball."

[Edited by ntxblue on Feb 19th, 2002 at 03:12 PM]

Thanks for the meeting update. I obviously missed last Sunday. I would have shown up at 6pm this week.

;eek: :rolleyes:

Mike,

Does that comment mean that you're afraid :( to mention my name to Bob?

Well---:p to you

Quote:

Originally posted by Elaine "Lady Blue"
;eek: :rolleyes:

Mike,

Does that comment mean that you're afraid :( to mention my name to Bob?

Well---:p to you

Elaine,

I see you found them and are making excellent
use of them. ;)

glen

Quote:

Originally posted by oppool
I have probably beat this subject to death but I thought I would try to clear a few points. With the new rule concerning definition of an Infielder this was explain at the National School that it would clarify that outfielders must be an = distance from home plate basically that if one outfielder would move up and play around a base in the infield this would not be legal because it would defeat the must have 2 female and 2 male ratio in the infield. So if this would happen in game the Umpire should correct it. My problem is with the other part of test question stating the offense has an option if this would occur in the umpires did not catch it before a play occured. No where that I can find in the 2002 rule book does this play have an EFFECT to it. Also in the past if there was not proper ratio in the infield (3 males 1 female) situation my understanding was when the umpire was aware of the situation you would correct it but all previous play stood. There was no EFFECT.

Still my stance tell I can see it in writing

Stubborn

Don

Not to beat this anymore, but isn't that what I said?

Yes, Mike it is and I believe we are on the same page on this but tell me this with ASA printing this be the correct answer (C) on the test and also printing it in there magizine as being correct that this should be the correct answer even though there is no support in the rule book that an offense has an option what going to happen the 1st time this happens and the defense coach protest. My thought your going to lose the protest because there is no proof in the rule to uphold the decision to let the offense have a option
And if this is true then ASA big shots need to print out a quick correction to what they are saying is the correct call

I know I have officially beaten this to death

Don