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kyleflan Tue Jun 26, 2007 01:00am

New Ump - Rules Clarifications
 
I'm a new umpire and I'll be officiating my first solo game tomorrow. I've been reading up on some rules to make sure I have the best understanding possible. However, some questions have arose and I can't seem to find clear answers.

Obstruction. Obstruction is a DDB, I understand that. However, if a runner is obstructed between two bases, but decides to retreat to the initial base, are they still awarded the second base when play stops?

For instance - B1 hits a hard base hit to center field. F8 fields the ball and throws it to F6 waiting at 2B. B1 rounds 1B and when B1 does so, B1 collides with F3. B1 sees F6 with the ball and retreats to 1B. Does B1 get 1B or 2B?

Another obstruction question.
R1 on 2B R2 on 1B. B3 hits a ball to F1, on fielder's choice, F1 decides to throw to F6 at 2B. While running from 1B to 2B, R2 is obstructed by F4. After receiving the throw, F6 throws the ball to F5 who steps on the base, but does not tag R1 forgetting that the force was removed. Normally, R1 would be safe since the force was removed. But since R2 is going to be awarded 2B, is the force still in effect and ipso facto, R1 out?

Thanks,
Kyle

Steve M Tue Jun 26, 2007 03:24am

welcome aboard, Kyle.

You asked "Obstruction. Obstruction is a DDB, I understand that. However, if a runner is obstructed between two bases, but decides to retreat to the initial base, are they still awarded the second base when play stops?" Where would this runner have ended up IF THERE WAAS NO OBSTRUCTION? Sometimes you will award the advance base, sometimes you won't.

Your first play - "For instance - B1 hits a hard base hit to center field. F8 fields the ball and throws it to F6 waiting at 2B. B1 rounds 1B and when B1 does so, B1 collides with F3. B1 sees F6 with the ball and retreats to 1B. Does B1 get 1B or 2B?" Would B1 have safely made it to 2B if F3 had not obstructed? Probably not, as I read your description, so call the obstruction and keep B1 at 1B.

Your second play is a bit different - "Another obstruction question.
R1 on 2B R2 on 1B. B3 hits a ball to F1, on fielder's choice, F1 decides to throw to F6 at 2B. While running from 1B to 2B, R2 is obstructed by F4. After receiving the throw, F6 throws the ball to F5 who steps on the base, but does not tag R1 forgetting that the force was removed. Normally, R1 would be safe since the force was removed. But since R2 is going to be awarded 2B, is the force still in effect and ipso facto, R1 out?"

When does obstruction go from a delayed dead ball to a dead ball? When the obstructed runner is put out, right? R2 was obstructed between 1B & 2B, was put out at 2B, and now you have a dead ball. One immediate effect of this is that everything stops - that means there was no play on R1.

kyleflan Tue Jun 26, 2007 09:05am

Thanks Steve,

So once obstruction has occurred, and the obstructed runner is put out, it becomes a dead ball and all runners are sent to the base they would have reached had the obstructed runner not been obstructed, correct?

And another quick question about Subs. You have players A, B, and C. Player A starts the game, Player B subs in for player A, then Player C for Player B, then finally Player A subs back in for Player C. Player A must finish the game unless she's injured, correct?

Thanks,
Kyle

NCASAUmp Tue Jun 26, 2007 09:21am

Quote:

Originally Posted by kyleflan
And another quick question about Subs. You have players A, B, and C. Player A starts the game, Player B subs in for player A, then Player C for Player B, then finally Player A subs back in for Player C. Player A must finish the game unless she's injured, correct?

Assuming you're talking ASA, no, that's not quite right. Any player can re-enter the game one time. So Player A can start, B can sub in for A, C can sub in for B, A can sub in for C, B can sub in for A, and C can sub in for B. Each player, at that point, will have re-entered only once, and that's perfectly legal.

Not sure what other rule books say about that, as I only do ASA.

celebur Tue Jun 26, 2007 01:48pm

In some rulesets, only starting players may re-enter. But even in those cases, player A doesn't have to finish the game after re-entering so long as there are still other subs available. But if A is pulled a second time, he/she is no longer eligible to play.

Steve M Tue Jun 26, 2007 03:27pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by kyleflan
Thanks Steve,

So once obstruction has occurred, and the obstructed runner is put out, it becomes a dead ball and all runners are sent to the base they would have reached had the obstructed runner not been obstructed, correct?

And another quick question about Subs. You have players A, B, and C. Player A starts the game, Player B subs in for player A, then Player C for Player B, then finally Player A subs back in for Player C. Player A must finish the game unless she's injured, correct?

Thanks,
Kyle

Yes

Watch what your sanctioning body is for re-entry rights. Like some others have already said, ASA and most others allow starters AND subs to re-enter. Other sanctioning bodies do not, they only allow starters to re-enter. So, no - B and/or C - and anyone else who is eligible to enter in that spot - may re-enter.


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