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Old Wed Mar 28, 2007, 02:10pm
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As Dakota correctly points out, this is really meaningless semantics, in that the way a force play and a play on BR at first base are treated the same. I agree with that, and I think we both understand the rule.

However, this particular rule is the ONLY place where such a play is refered to this way, and it is this that Wade was pointing out as an error.

If a play on BR at first was TRULY a force play, the definition of "force play" would need to be rewritten to include BR, and the 2 or 3 spots in the book that mention "On a force play or on a play on BR at first base" would simply need to change to "on a force play".

You can continue to argue that because of THIS rule referring to a play on BR at first as a force play, then a play on BR IS a force play. It's weak logic... but my logic for saying it's NOT a force play because in other places in the book ASA intentionally mentions them separately is exactly as weak, with the only real difference between my argument and yours being found in the definition of "Force Play".

Honestly, it's a silly argument. And you probably agree. So lets let it die.
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