Batted Ball striking runner
 

Coach here, had a call go against us last night that I thought was a rule mis-interp.

R1 on second R2 on first batted ball strikes R2 as she is heading for second. BU calls R2 out and places batter at first and places R1 at third. I asked why R1 was put on third because she had not reached third at the time of interference and should be returned to second. He agreed that R1 had not reached third at the time of interference but because a force situation existed at the time of the pitch the runner on second was forced to run to third. So he placed her on third.

Here is the text of the rule 8-1E3:

.....if it (the ball) passes an infielder and another infielder has an opportunity to make an out, the runner (struck by the batted ball) is out and the batter-runner is entitled to first base without liability to be put out. Any runner not forced by the batter-runner must return to the base reached prior to the interference. (parenthesis mine)

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I interpret the above rule as saying we have to put the batter on first, and in so doing that forces us to move other runners forward if necessary to put the batter on first. In this sitch, however, with R1 being called out, R2 was not forced to be given third and should have been returned to second.

Blue does a lot of our local tournaments/games and I promised him an email whichever way you guys and gals interpret this sitch.

Sorry to say, but it sounds like the blue got it wrong. The ball is dead immediately, the runner hit by the ball is out, and the batter-runner gets first base. All other runners must return to the base occupied at TOP.

The only "force" situation here would be if say R1 was heading toward 3rd, R2 heading to second...If R1 is hit by the batted ball, the B/R gets 1st, thus "forcing" R2 to go to second. You end up with the same situation, just with different players on different bases and one added out.

Umpire wrong, both posters correct.

It should be noted that even if R1 attained 3rd base before the interference (perhaps she was stealing, or just very fast), she STILL goes back to 2nd.

"Any runner not forced by the batter-runner must return to the base reached prior to the interference." or "last base touched at the time of the interference" (NFHS).

Still hung up on the baseball and Little League interpretations, Mike. Not so in softball; last base touched prior to the interference; TOP not a factor in softball awards, other than a pitched ball blocked or leaving the field of play.

So basically if R1 was somehow superfast and had attained 3rd "BEFORE" the ball hit R2 she would be allowed to stay at 3rd? NFHA rules of course!

Sorry - thought I was on the other board. I hate people that do that, and I hate it twice as much when I do it. My bad - sorry guys.

ASA, NFHS, and NCAA, all would allow 3rd in that case.

also in PONY-sanctioned games, regardless of the type of horse.

:D Too Funny

Even on a steal...I find it hard to believe that a runner could reach 3rd base (not leaving before the pitch leaves the pitcher's hand) before the batted ball hits a runner. She must be VERY VERY VERY fast or the ball was hit soooooooooo slowly that the runner hit by it would be called out not only for being hit, but also for being stupid!

How about a suicide squeeze with R1 breaking from third with pitch. The bunt has a violent spin and/or its a windy day and hits the now batter-runner who is running in fair territory. If R1 crosses plate before ball hits batter-runner, I think we have a dead ball out and a run scored.