wave off run
 

Does this story say the umpire made an appeal ruling without being asked?

https://www.msn.com/en-us/sports/bas...3ef2de279&ei=5

Is that permissible in baseball?

If you can't use the link, check Red Sox - Blue Jays, August 10.

I think the part they got right was that the runner from 3rd "scored" before the live ball appeal at first base.

I also think what they got wrong was that the runner from 3rd must still run the bases legally. I.E. Should have tagged up after the ball was caught.

Confusion because the scoreboard showed 2 outs before the fly ball.

Given that there was a lot of time to come to a ruling, probably both teams were off the field by then.

Unless this is a unique baseball rule, that about fielders coming off the field, it seems like Toronto should have been given the opportunity to appeal the runner from 3rd (4th out appeal). If the umpires decided to grant the run after all that time, seems only fair that the defense should be given the same opportunity to appeal. Even if every defensive player by that time was in the dugout.

But I've learned in Business Law 101 that "fair" doesn't matter. It's what the law (in this case, rules) states.