Originally Posted by RKBUmp (Post 989392)

A fielder not in possession of the ball and not in the act of fielding a batted ball may not impede the progress of a runner. In the play described F6 neither had the ball nor was in the process of fielding a batted ball and cannot impede the runner. How are you going to explain to a coach your reason for not calling obstruction? You may not like the rule in this particular situation, but it is our job to enforce the rules as written.

Originally Posted by Umpire@1 (Post 989494)

In the original play there was no mention if a throw coming in from the OF, so why do you bring that into the question/play. This reminds me of one of our meetings when someone as a question and we start getting 8-10 What is's.