A has 4th and 10 from the A's 45 yard line.

A10 drops back to pass and throws to A88. In his attempt to catch the ball A88 pushes B25 in the back. The pass is incomplete.

A88 called for offensive pass interference.

What and where is the next down played from? Whose ball will it be?

NF rules. The penalty is 15 yards and LOD. Enforce from the previous spot. It will next be B's ball 1/10 at the A-30.

That is the way we enforced it tonight and the coaches for both teams were somewhat confused. Of course what is new.

They could not, the offending team A, understand how the penalty could be accepted and they did not get to keep the ball.

I told them by the result of their actions (OPI) they had given up their right to the ball.

I learned from a similar experience a few years ago when we had a team that intentionally grounded the ball on 4th down. We kind of bailed ourselves out by telling the defensive team to decline the penalty and they would receive the ball on downs from the previous spot. We did not enforce it right then but learned from our mistake. Fortunately that night it had no bearing on the result of the game.

Felt we were right but looking for a little reassurence.

Theres always that dumb question on the T/F test. "A penalty cannot give the other team the ball" or somthing along those lines. I think that question really throws people off by thinking that if its 4th down and you have a loss of down then you just repeat 4th down.

Since we're on the subject. What's the call for this play?

First down and 10 for A from the 50. B1 intercepts at the B45 and runs it back to the A30, then illegally tosses the ball forward to B2 who runs the ball in the endzone. Obviously the ball will come back to the 30 and penalized from there, but what down is it?? We had this in a flag football game and the intercepting team got the ball starting with 2nd down. Seemed kinda odd to me.

You can NEVER, EVER, EVER start a new series on any down other than 1. Loss of down only refers to "loss of right to repeat the down". In this instance, we're not repeating the down.

If you have a change of possession and during the return, have an illegal forward pass, the penalty is five yards from the spot.

I would answer that that statement is true. It's not the penalty that makes it B's ball in this situation, it's the fact that A never reached the LTG in the allotted number of downs.

Down zero
 

Another way to look at this is the interception is down 0 for the team that intercepts, not 1st down and if they have a loss of down at down 0 it will now be first down.

Canadian Ruling
 

OPI is 15+DR. B should decline and take the ball at A's 45 for YNG.

You wouldn't answer true if you had read your fundamentals. ;)

One of the fundamentals is that no foul causes loss of the ball. Or some paraphrasing of such.

it's not the penalty that causes loss of the ball - because if it's 3rd down and you have OPI - then you back'em up and it's 4th down - not loss of possesion.

The offending team loses their right to repeat the down - and are out of downs after 4 - so it's 1st down the other way.

Yeah. I-6 - "No foul causes loss of the ball." Why wouldn't the above statement be true vis a vis this????

Georgia Blue has it right. The foul does not cause A to lose possession of the ball. They lose the right to repeat the down. Another fun case of dealing with NF test questions.

Mark, your answer was correct, I think SGARef goofed! ;)