We had this play tonight and I would like your comments.
1st and 10 for A at B's 45. A runs the ball for a 5 yard gain to the 40 where after the ball is dead, both A and B committ personal fouls. B is assessed 15 yards, then A is assessed 15 yards to bring the ball back to the 40. The chains are reset at the 40, 1st and 10. My question is, "Why were the chains reset?" A did not reach the original line to gain, i. e. 35. Any thoughts or comments?
Thanks for any help.

If B was assessed fifteen yards first (assuming B's foul occured first), that would have given A a first down, right? So assessing 15 yards on A still gives them a first down, but 15 yards back, right?

Is that the correct way to do that? That's the only thing I can think of without breaking out the rule book. Because it's late and I'm sore.

You got it right. You administer the fouls in order of occurrence. The foul by B gives a first down for A (ie: a new series), then enforce the foul by A, then set the chains. That's correct.

I'm catching on. Only a couple million years to go. :)

This is a fairly recent (within the last 5 years) enforcement. Before that you would have enforced the B foul to the 30. Set the chains 1 & 10. Then enforce the A foul. Which would make it 1 & 25 from the 45.

Canadian Ruling
 

These personal fouls offset - downs continue from the origial PBD. 2D/5 @ B-40.