Balk Clarification under MLB Rules

timharris

Hello

I just need a clarification of the balk rule:

We have a runner on third base with a count of (3) balls & (2) strike on the batter with (1) out.

The pitcher balks buy not stepping off the rubber properly.
I know this is a balk and the runner from (3rd) base goes home.

Will this also result in a ball being called on the batter?

Thank you

bossman72

No, this is "no pitch." R3 awarded home, batter has same count of 3-2

mbyron

It's no pitch even if he pitches. Example: 3-2 count, balk for not stopping, pitch comes home, batter takes the pitch.

Balk, time called when F2 possesses the pitched ball, move the runner(s). Still 3-2 on the batter.

johnnyg08

The hitter could also swing and miss and it would still be 3 balls, 2 strikes, R3 scores.

TxUmp

johnnyg08 wrote
The hitter could also swing and miss and it would still be 3 balls, 2 strikes, R3 scores.

But if the Batter makes contact and makes it safely to first (and all other runners safely advance one base), the balk is ignored, and the ball is live.

MLB rules. In FED, any balk is an immediate dead ball and any further action is nullified.

johnnyg08

TxUmp wrote
But if the Batter makes contact and makes it safely to first (and all other runners safely advance one base), the balk is ignored, and the ball is live.

MLB rules. In FED, any balk is an immediate dead ball and any further action is nullified.

yes. also good points.