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timeout question
4th quarter. Team "a" is out of timeouts. Player 32A has ball. Coach calls time out. Official blows whistle, and grants timeout.
Upon discovery they have no timeouts left, the officials: 1. Call a technical foul 2. Grant timeout prior to player 2B shoots saying the coach "bought the timeout by the issuance of technical foul" Is this correct procedure as well as rule interpretation? I have looked for rule interpretation to back this procedure. Any help please |
10.1.7
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Not thrilled with the wording in the explanation, but otherwise that's right.
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Yes....
Grant the timeout. Assess the T. Shoot the FT's. |
I would also inform both coaches that there is a pending T and a throw-in to the non-requesting team. I think this is important because there is also a turnover since A had the initial throw-in. I would then start the timeout after the coaches were informed of this fact.
I should also say that I always make it a point to know if a team is out of timeouts (and for that matter, additionally when they have 1 left). When they request the excessive timeout, I already know, and just quickly confirm with the table that it's an excessive timeout. In this way, I don't interrupt the discussion that's about to begin between the coaches and his players. |
But Your Partner Told Me I Had One Timeout Left ...
Rookie alert: Don't tell coaches when they have one time out remaining. If the official scorekeeper somehow miscommunicates this to the official, and the coach really has no timeouts left, the coach is going to be really upset with the officials when he gets charged with a technical foul for using an excessive time out when he thought he had one to burn. Only tell coaches when they have used all of their timeouts, or when they have used an excessive time out.
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Guility as charged!
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When In My Little Corner Of Connecticut, Don't Do It ...
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