Substitutions during FT for intentional foul.
 

This happened in my Women's sophomore game tonight. A1 has a breakaway to the basket and goes for a layup. B1 bear hugs her from behind and I call an intentional foul. B5 and 6 have reported and are ready to check in before I complete reporting. I am pretty sure I did it wrong but I allowed them in AFTER both free throws. Partner thought that we should have let them in AFTER THE FIRST shot. Thinking about it more, I think I could have allowed them in before the FTs. They do not gain an advantage coming in early for lanes cleared FTs.

And a quick side question pertaining to the same play. Shooter of the free throws in this sitch is the person who was fouled not any member of the team because this is an intentional personal foul.

And along those lines, what is an example of an intentional technical foul?

Let the fun begin.

3-3-1c applies to all personal fouls. It's not about advantage, either, the rule was changed to save time, no other reason.

If one of those subs was for B1, I'd be inclined to let the coach make the change. I'm all for a coach taking care of a problem player as soon as possible...but the rule says you wait until after all but the last shot of multiple shots.

Yes, the fouled player is the one who shoots those FTs.

As for an intentional technical foul...it is possible I suppose but there isn't any reason to have such a thing since there is no practical difference between that and a basic technical foul. I suppose you could could call dead ball contact fouls as an intentional technical but there is no point.

Shoving an opponent during a dead ball would be an example of an intentional technical foul.

Even though we never refer to it as such, that is what it is.

Now what if there is an intentional foul followed by retaliatory intentional foul (ie fouled player A1 calls fouler B1 a naughty name like jackwagon) and you have A6 and B6 ready to sub in. This is what I am thinking: This is a false double foul situation. Administer in the order of occurence. A1 shoots intentional foul shots, (here's the kicker) B6 is subing in for B1 to shoot the technical foul shots. So I would think at this point both A6 and B6 could enter the game. Now, who gets the ball? Don't want to say AP because that seems to easy. Thanks everyone, trying to wrap my head around this scenario.

In this case, it is penalized as a technical foul and not an intentional right?

You'd have an intentional personal first of all. What you described afterward sounds like an unsportsmanlike technical foul rather than an intentional technical foul (shove=int, name=unsporting). You do have a false double foul meaning you administer free throws in the order they occur. In this scenario, you'd be able to sub after the first free throw for the intentional foul and between any other free throws.

Remember a false double foul means all free throws are administered in the order they occurred. Administer the intentional personal foul, then the unsporting T.

You are right, I meant unsporting technical foul. And who gets the ball?

Team A is penalized last as their foul occurred last. Part of the penalty for a technical foul is two shots and the ball at halfcourt for the offended team.

There are two types of fouls, personal and technical. Each type contains a subcategory called "intentional."