Held Ball on the Throw-in
 

Team A has a throw-in. A1 reaches the ball through the plane and B1 grabs the ball and ties it up. Should a held ball be called even though A1 is out of bounds? Where is this in the rule book?

2011-2012 NFHS Case Book

*7.6.4 SITUATION F: Thrower A1 inadvertently holds the ball through the endline plane during a throw-in. B1 is able to get his/her hands on the ball and A1 cannot pull it back.

RULING: A held ball is called, resulting in an alternating-possession throw-in. If the original throw-in is an alternating-possession throw-in, Team A still has the arrow following the held ball.

Yes. Around page 63 of the Case Book (but I'm looking at last year's).

Yes.

Team A just has another APA throw-in.

5.8.1 for starters...

How's This?
 

7.6.4f

(Wow, you other guys are fast with your responses! You must have employment like I have where you can just stand by monitoring the forum 12 hours a day at the ready to fire off the first answer possible.)

Not necessarily, if it wasn't an AP throw-in to begin with.

My bad. I read the OP be to be throw-in due to a held ball, rather than a held ball on a throw-in.

What do you mean the FIFTH?
 

Is it 2012 already? OK, we've established at least one of us is off to a slow start ... I forget why, if this is an AP situation, the ball doesn't revert to B to inbound on this play.

And a related query from locker room musings weeks ago by a fellow official: While all contact by a defending reaching across to an inbounder is now deemed an intentional foul, what's the call if, as in the OP above, inbounder A reaches across the imaginary line and then is hacked on the arm? Just a personal foul on B?

Contact with the thrower-in by the defender (no matter where the ball is in regards to OOB or across the inbounds plane is an intentional personal foul.

Either Way
 

9.2 PENALTIES . . . intentional foul regardless whether the inbounder has his arms over the in- or out-of-bounds area.

(Shucks, not quick enough again!)

Hint: When does the arrow change?

If the above play was an alternating possession throw-in, and B1 is able to cause a held ball with thrower A1, it doesn't revert to B because Team A's throw-in hasn't ended and the AP doesn't change unless A commits a violation or until the throw-in is completed.

Thanks, both. Only had copies of last year's books at the office.

But back to my original sheepish question: Why doesn't possession go to Team B if it's AP (held ball) time? There was no violation or foul by B.

Because, by rule, the AP throw-in has not yet ended.

Thanks Bob, Hawkeye and APG -- was just buried in my own typing in previous comment/question and didin't see your answers. Seems odd that this could go Groundhog's Day if B did it, say, several times in a row.