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player A1 has ball in front court. a pass to A2 is low so A2 sticks leg out "intentionally" to stop ball and the ball hits A2 on the ankle. do i have a "offensive" kick ball violation?
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As long as it was done intentionally, it's a kick; whether it's done by the offense or defense.
Chuck |
NEW 24 sec' ..that's all
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Quote:
Chuck |
Quote:
The shot clock is running out, so A1 passes to A2 who kicks the ball. Now A gets a fresh shot-clock. |
Jeez, Bob! You are in some kind of mood today!! :)
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wait is this a violation and possession goes to team B right? If not, then Bob is right. Lets say game with 45 seconds left and team A leading by one. Most likely team B will just try to play good D and try to get back the ball with at least 10 seconds to try to win it. However, team A could then wind the clock down under 35 seconds and then kick the ball to reset the clock. This does not make any sense.
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Any kicking violation results in possession to the other team. Bob was being facetious. ;)
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Really? That could be a good strategy. The shot clock is running out, so A1 passes to A2 who kicks the ball. Now A gets a fresh shot-clock. maybe you didn't understand me... in FIBA if team A control the ball and deffensive player (team b)is kicking the ball-only then it will be new 24 sec' for team A.this is basketball game not football game . i think this rule(fiba) is very normal. |
Player A2 is not on the defensive team (team B). He is on team A.
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So this is a violation .
the ball will go to team B. STILL NORMAL... |
yeah, but what about the mechanic?
If the ball is kicked by A2, do you use the "swirl" signal? :)
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i will just point on the leg and call it kick violation...everyone will understand you.
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