Originally posted by Viking32 B1 scores a FG. B2 intentionally kicks the ball after A1 releases it on the inbound pass. Does A retain the right to run the baseline?
If the ball is to be put back at the baseline and no possession was gained before the kick.
Peace
Agree. Too bad I have no rule book today to look it up (damn early work meetings)
Tue Jan 21, 2003, 04:33pm
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