In a recent game I called a violation for an intentionally kicked ball by an offensive player in the lane and awarded the ball to the defensive team. After the game my partner who is a more veteran official said it shouldn't have been a violation since "you can't have a kicked ball violation on the offense." He said it was written that way in the rule book. When I consulted the rule book(9-4)I don't see any distinction made for offensive or defensive players kicking the ball. Am I missing something? Thanks.

Maybe I"m not too bright as a fan suggested last night but why would a offensive player intentionaly kick the ball?I've never seen that but maybe V or one the oldtimers can tell me about it happening.

The offensive player kicked the ball when it was loose on the floor in a group of players. Kicked like a soccer player!

Try these scenarios, loose ball with team control by A. B1 is reaching down to pick it up when A1 kicks it away from him. Or, an errant pass is going OOB, or is in the air OOB, and A2 kicks it back in.

Have had both happen. Number 1 is hard to call as was it really a deliberate kick or just part of the scramble for the ball? Got to see the swing of the leg to tell. Number 2 is easy.

I think I would continue play as your partner did but maybe I'm wrong I want to hear from some of the old guys on this.

It is a violation for any player on the floor to intentionally kick the ball,be they offense or defense. The "intentionally" is up to the official's judgement.

I agree with JR.

No discernment for this as a "defense only" violation. I cannot understand where one could extract a "defense only" violation.

The only judgement for the official is whether or not an intentional act.

I'm not old but I'll answer!

RecRef hit it on the head. The offense could kick the ball to prevent B from getting it or to keep it from going OOB. If the rule just applied to the defense, this would be legal.

That's why it's illegal.

[Edited by BktBallRef on Jan 19th, 2003 at 10:47 PM]

Been there, done that . . .
http://www.officialforum.com/showthr...?threadid=3968


Kick ball violation can definately be applied to the offense. Key to the rule - we're not officiating soccer (or football for all you FIBA folks out there).

The only requirements for a kicked ball violation are that it has to be intentional and the knee or below. It <b> can </b> be called on the offense or defense.

Z

NCAA violation above knee, too
 

...unless you're working under NCAA rules, in which case the striking the ball intentionally with any part of the foot or leg is a violation.

Why this myth exists
 

There are refs that call kicked balls anytime that the ball strikes the foot. I have had inexperienced refs call the kicked ball when a dribbler on a dead run has the ball bounce away off their foot. I think that these refs are then told that you can't have a kicked ball on the offense. This statement is generally true because an offensive player is not likely to intentionally kick the ball, except when it becomes a losse ball.

So rather than learn the rule and the reason, people are relying on general rules of thumb that are not based on the written rule but what normally happens in basketball. These will get you by, but it is better to shop here and learn the real rule so you get more calls right.