A1 has his shot hit off the rim, A2 backtaps and the ball goes all the way to the backcourt. If A3 then recovers the ball in the back court is this a violation?

No violation,because team A hasn't established team or player control yet.For the principles,see casebook plays 4.12.2 and 4.12.6.

Jurassic,

If it is deemed a deliberate tap attempt to the backcourt, can you have a violation then?

Mike

No. Team control is obtained by holding or dribbling the ball. There's no such thing as control being established by a tap.

Remember the definition of player control: holding or dribbling a live ball inbounds. Did the rebounder hold the ball before batting it to the backcourt? Probably not. Would you have granted a TO if he'd requested one? Probably not. So no player control; so no team control; so no backcourt violation.

Chuck

Jeez, Tony!! 3 lousy minutes! I try to grab an easy one, and you swoop in and beat me to it. :mad:

Chuck ;)

Short and sweet is hard to beat! :p

There's a really naughty joke in there somewhere, but I'm not going to make it!! :eek:

chuck

I firmly believe what Tony and Chuck have written. This really isn't even a judgment call since 4-15-4 Note 2 tells us that the player does not have control in this specific case.

Although, sometimes it is much more difficult to tell at what point a player has established control. Particularly when a player is attempting to start a dribble. I posted a thread on this type of action about a week ago.

Gee,I believed it too,but I didn't get THAT excited about it! :eek: