| Stan |
Sat Oct 26, 2002 08:31am |
Quote:
Originally posted by theteeto
This is all a question of timing. It seems in the question that the shooter is fouled before the possible PC situation--TWEET, count the basket, shoot one. That's it. Once you call that first foul, the play is over, and no PC foul is possible. Unless, of course, you deem the impact after the foul to be intentional, i.e., a T. Now, if you rule that the shooter commits the PC foul at the same time B2 fouls him, that's a pretty standard double personal fouls, no shots, use the AP arrow, and, as a PC foul occured, you can't count the bucket...yes?
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Mr. theteeto, Your view of the sitch does not square with 4.19.8.A If A1 is fouled in the act of shooting by B1 and the ball goes in we'll count the basket. Won't we still protect the shooter, assuming A1 is airborne. Now nobody gives the shooter carte blanc, so if A1 makes a bloody stain of B2 ( I like that description ) on the way down, I have PC. It's not intentional or flagrent, just PC as it would be at any other time during the game. Not that I would be smart enough to call or explain a false double foul, but that I believe, is what the case book says.
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