Throw-in question.
 

After a successful field goal by Team A and clock running, B1 takes the ball out for a throw-in. B1 holds the ball preparing and the new trail begins a count.

B2 then tells B1 to "leave the ball alone" as Coach B and B1's teammates do not want him inbounding the ball against the press defense. B1 drops/passes the ball in the direction of B2, who is moving from inbounds to out of bounds to make the throw in. As B2 moves out of bounds, the ball bounces three times on the floor. Twice OOB and once inbounds on the final bounce before B2 who is now OOB picks it up.

What do you have?

OOB violation by B2.

NF rules - if the ball had not hit inbound prior to B2 grabbing it, there's no violation as long as B2 then throws the ball towards the court before the five second count ends. This would not be the case on a spot throw-in.

I've got a throwin violation by B1. Failure to make a throwin pass directly onto the court.

+1

Agreed. You may want to tell B1 and/or B2 that may work in soccer, but not basketball.

After a made basket, he COULD have been passing to B2 (out of bounds). In this case, B1 does NOT have to pass the ball directly into the court -- he can pass to another teammate who is out of bounds. So long as the ball remains out of bounds, it could be a poorly thrown bounce pass. Once it made its way onto the court (and was carried out by B2), the violation occurred.

At least that is my read on the situation.

He could have been, but he wasn't. Since the pass entered the court, it became a throw-in pass. Since it was not directly onto the the court, it was a violation.

Yep, and if the ball had only bounced in the OOB area, it would be ok, but as jar states, once it bounced in bounds, it became an illegal throwin pass.

Not arguing the violation -- merely pointing out that in the case of a throw-in situation after a made goal, the initial throw-in pass does not have to go directly into the court -- unlike other throw-ins.

This is just incorrect. There is only one throw-in pass. There's not an "initial" throw-in pass and then another one that goes onto the court.

A pass between teammates who are both out of bounds after a made or awarded basket is NOT a throw-in pass. The throw-in pass is the pass that is intended to go to a player on the playing court.

After a made basket:

Can A1 make a bounce pass that strikes the floor OOB to A2. A2 w Aill then make the throw in. A2 was coming OOB to complete the throw-in play.

Can A1 make a throw-in pass that strikes the the floor OOB to a player inbounds?

At what point can B2 legally touch the ball when A1 has released it?

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Several scenarios here:

1. Pass bounces OOB, A2 steps OOB before touching pass, completes throw-in before 5-second count elapses: legal.

2. Pass bounces OOB, A2 still has a foot inbounds when touching pass: throw-in violation.

3. Pass bounces OOB, A2 is in the air, having last touched inbounds, when touching pass: throw-in violation.

1) Legal pass. Not a throw-in pass.

2) illegal as per NFHS rule 9-2-2 and case book play 9.2.2SitA(a)

3) legal to touch as soon as the thrower has released the throw-in, as per NFHS rule 9-2-10

Really?

Since we are on the topic of the throw in. Last night my high school season began (so we are NFHS rules here). During the loooonnnnngggggg JV/V girls double header, we had a throw in after a made basket (Team A). There was a held ball on the throw in, A retains possession. Do the retain the right to run the baseline? It led to a good conversation, but unfortunately the JV game took 2 hours (and we left fouls out there) so we didn't get in to the books in post-game.

Nope. You only retain the right if the scoring team commits a violation or common foul and the ensuing throw-in was still on the end line. A held-ball is neither a violation or common foul.

NFHS rule 7-5-7(b)

No, B did not foul or violate during the throw-in. You have a spot throw-in at the location closest to the held ball.

No book on me but I'm thinking the rationale is that the throw-in ends on the held ball unlike a foul or violation.

Yeah, we put the ball back in to play with a spot throw in, but it was a playthat made you stop and think. As a previous post state, the ball was not illegally touched to end the throw in. Essentially how I looked at it was the ball was legally touched to end the throw in....by both teams. :D

Doesn't rule 4-42-5 say that a throw-in ends "when the passed ball touches or is legally touched by another player in-bounds." Can you end a throw-in when there never was a passed ball(throw-in pass) by the thrower? The ball never left the thrower's hands.

Semantics can drive you nuts. :D

Yes.