Sheepishly, another backcourt question
 

Please correct my understanding as I try to back up a no-backcourt-call with rules. A1 is dribbling in his front court. Defender B1 bats the ball off A1, then into A1’s backcourt. A1 is first to touch the ball in a1’s backcourt.

I think this is NOT a violation because team control ended when the dribble ended (4-12.1 and .2a), and the dribble ended when the defender touched the ball and caused the dribbler to lose control (4-15.4d). Is this sound reasoning? If so, then please tell me why 4-12.4 does not seem to apply. (4-12-4: while the ball remains live, a loose ball always remains in control of the team whose player last had control, unless it is a try or tap)

Would the ruling change if A1 had accidentally dribbled off B1’s foot, ball touched player from A, ball into backcourt, and A1 is first to touch?

Team control does not end when the dribble ends. This IS a backcourt violation.

Look up the events that end team control.

key is "until opponent SECURES control," right?

Yes.

thank you.

This post should be cancelled now as the answer has been agreed upon !!!!

Nah, it's time for snarky responses; or else it will simply die a natural death only to be resurrected in two years when someone has a question about it's accuracy given soon-to-be implemented rule changes.

Lmao !!!!!!!
 

Snags -

I couldn't have said it any better !!!!! I freakin fell off my chair reading your

response.

Over under for this post resurfacing is May of 2012 with legit questions !!!!

It's not May 2012 yet, but I look at it this way. If A1 is dribbling and B1 bats the ball off A1's leg and the ball rolls OOB.....

Not an exact replica, but it helps the mindset of the rule.