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bas2456 Tue Apr 28, 2009 09:13pm

Bulls vs Celtics
 
End of the Bulls/Celtics game.

Brad Miller gets fouled going to the rim. Foul draws blood. Bulls coach wanted a flagrant. Would the flagrant be warranted? I wouldn't think so, but what do you think?

Second question is that while Miller was trying to get the blood stopped, the announcers were talking about how that if Miller had to come out, the opposing coach would get to choose who shot the free throws. Is this correct? Did anyone else hear this?

Nevadaref Tue Apr 28, 2009 09:17pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bas2456 (Post 598464)
End of the Bulls/Celtics game.

Brad Miller gets fouled going to the rim. Foul draws blood. Bulls coach wanted a flagrant. Would the flagrant be warranted? I wouldn't think so, but what do you think?

Second question is that while Miller was trying to get the blood stopped, the announcers were talking about how that if Miller had to come out, the opposing coach would get to choose who shot the free throws. Is this correct? Did anyone else hear this?

Remember that they are using NBA terminology and rules.

Flagrant in the NBA doesn't have the same meaning as flagrant under NCAA and NFHS rules.

Yes, UNDER NBA RULES the fouled player must attempt his FTs in the NBA or he can't participate any further in the contest. If he needs to be replaced, the opposing coach selects someone from the team's bench to attempt the FTs.

DonInKansas Tue Apr 28, 2009 09:18pm

Play at the buzzer to win, he would have had to balled a fist and knocked Miller out to get a flagrant.

bas2456 Tue Apr 28, 2009 09:19pm

Crazy NBA

Nevadaref Tue Apr 28, 2009 09:19pm

In the future, just use this link:http://www.nba.com/analysis/rules_index.html

RULE 9, Section II-Shooting of Free Throw

a. The free throw(s) awarded because of a personal foul shall be attempted by the offended player.
EXCEPTIONS:
(1) If the offended player is injured or is ejected from the game and cannot attempt the awarded free throw(s), the opposing coach shall select, from his opponent's bench, the player who will replace the injured player. That player will attempt the free throw(s) and the injured player will not be permitted to re-enter the game. The substitute must remain in the game until the next dead ball.

btaylor64 Tue Apr 28, 2009 10:58pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bas2456 (Post 598464)
End of the Bulls/Celtics game.

Brad Miller gets fouled going to the rim. Foul draws blood. Bulls coach wanted a flagrant. Would the flagrant be warranted? I wouldn't think so, but what do you think?

Second question is that while Miller was trying to get the blood stopped, the announcers were talking about how that if Miller had to come out, the opposing coach would get to choose who shot the free throws. Is this correct? Did anyone else hear this?

The foul was not unnecessary contact therefore no Flagrant. That is what we ask ourselves when assessing a Flagrant Foul penalty 1.

Nevada is right about Miller being injured as were the broadcasters. If Miller would have been unable to shoot his FTs he would not have been allowed to return to the game and the opposing coach would select the shooter from the bench.

Had they called a Flagrant 1 and the player is injured, the coach of the injured player would get to choose from the 4 remaining players on the floor and had it been a Flagrant 2 the coach could choose any player to shoot the FTs.

Raymond Wed Apr 29, 2009 08:10am

Quote:

Originally Posted by bas2456 (Post 598464)
End of the Bulls/Celtics game.

Brad Miller gets fouled going to the rim. Foul draws blood. Bulls coach wanted a flagrant. Would the flagrant be warranted? I wouldn't think so, but what do you think?

I have no problem with it not being deemed a flagrant foul as long as it wouldn't be a flagrant in the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd quarters also.

I do believe Dwight Howard should be sitting for Game 6 against Philly.

actuary77 Wed Apr 29, 2009 11:25am

Barkley, Smith comments
 
Not that I consider Charles Barkley and Kenny Smith to be THE voice of reason on anything NBA, but they did raise a very good point (imho) about the whole flagrant vs. non-flagrant issue...

If it were the other way around, i.e. Miller wacking Rondo on the head, the officials would have called that a fragrant automatically.

AGREE OR DISAGREE?

bas2456 Wed Apr 29, 2009 01:49pm

Why would that change things? And would the refs really think about that?

BktBallRef Wed Apr 29, 2009 02:18pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by DonInKansas (Post 598467)
Play at the buzzer to win, he would have had to balled a fist and knocked Miller out to get a flagrant.

Why? On a play at the buzzer, whether it's flagrant or not wouldn't matter because the ball isn't going to be awarded for a throw-in after the FTs.

Quote:

Originally Posted by btaylor64 (Post 598488)
The foul was not unnecessary contact therefore no Flagrant.

I think that's very debatable.

btaylor64 Wed Apr 29, 2009 02:47pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by actuary77 (Post 598625)
Not that I consider Charles Barkley and Kenny Smith to be THE voice of reason on anything NBA, but they did raise a very good point (imho) about the whole flagrant vs. non-flagrant issue...

If it were the other way around, i.e. Miller wacking Rondo on the head, the officials would have called that a fragrant automatically.

AGREE OR DISAGREE?

I think if Rondo was hit, landed, etc. in the same way then it would be the same. You can't really role reverse, because if you do and Miller is the one swinging at the same speed as Rondo there is going to be a heavier impact against a smaller guy, which in most cases will take rondo to the ground. You just really can't reverse the roles of these players in my opinion cause it would change impact power and all the above.

Raymond Wed Apr 29, 2009 02:55pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by btaylor64 (Post 598708)
I think if Rondo was hit, landed, etc. in the same way then it would be the same. You can't really role reverse, because if you do and Miller is the one swinging at the same speed as Rondo there is going to be a heavier impact against a smaller guy, which in most cases will take rondo to the ground. You just really can't reverse the roles of these players in my opinion cause it would change impact power and all the above.

So essentially the NBA rule only takes in too account impact and not intent? And small players can take free shots at big players?

refguy Wed Apr 29, 2009 02:56pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef (Post 598691)
Why? On a play at the buzzer, whether it's flagrant or not wouldn't matter because the ball isn't going to be awarded for a throw-in after the FTs.


I think that's very debatable.


Wrong. There was 2.0 seconds remaining after the foul and on a flagrant, Chicago would have gotten the throw-in with a chance to win the game regardless of the results of Miller's free throws.

btaylor64 Wed Apr 29, 2009 03:01pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef (Post 598712)
So essentially the NBA rule only takes in too account impact and not intent? And small players can take free shots at big players?

That would be correct. We are not taught to referee intent, but just judge on whether contact is unnecessary and/or excessive in regards to Flagrant Fouls.

ILRef80 Wed Apr 29, 2009 03:05pm

I think it should have been a flagrant. Rondo did not attempt a play on the ball and instead gave Miller a hard smack to the face. In one of my games, I'm deeming that a flagrant. The NBA may have a different definition though.


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