Inbounds eligibility
 

If A1 is inbounds and passes to A2 who is out of bounds until the ball is in the air and then establishes himself with both feet inbounds and then receives the pass is he in violation as the first to touch the ball after being out of bounds or is he eligible to receive the pass because he has established himself inbounds before he touches the ball?

That is a run-on sentence.

There is no first-to-touch provision in NFHS. As long as the player is in bounds, he can touch the ball legally.

To be in bounds, he does not need to establish with both feet. One foot is all that is required as long as no part of his body (to include the other foot) is touching OOB.

You can always fix the sentence. :)

In college, I believe it makes a difference how A2 got OOB in the first place.

Thank you I knew I had heard the rule a million times but I get my flag fb rules mixed up with my bball rules. And I wasn't an english major either :p

Hey, I give you credit for acknowledging it was a run-on sentence.

I give you debit for not fixing it before posting. :rolleyes: