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Chigidy Tue May 13, 2008 02:17pm

Rules Question!! Please help
 
Ok is a player considered out of bounds if a player is running and on foot steps out the other steps in and then gets a pass before the other foot touches in bounds or would the on foot in bounds be considered the last point of contact?

Adam Tue May 13, 2008 02:19pm

A player's location is determined by his last (or current) point of contact with the floor.
Examples.
1. Player standing with one foot out and one foot in, lifts the foot that was out so only his inbounds foot is on the floor. This player is in bounds.
2. Player standing OOB, takes one step in bounds and jumps off the foot that was in bounds. This player is in bounds.
3. Your example, the player is in bounds, as his last contact with the floor was in bounds.

Basically, all that's required to be in bounds is to have something in and nothing out.

Hope this helps.

JRutledge Tue May 13, 2008 02:20pm

You are considered to be located where you last touched. Unless the foot is still touching out of bounds, then the player is considered in bounds (if he is touching the in bounds area).

Peace

Chigidy Tue May 13, 2008 02:41pm

That's what I was thinking. I had some old folks telling me that both feet had to be inbounds before they are considered "inbounds." Thanks for the clarification.

Vinski Tue May 13, 2008 03:27pm

Watch out for those "old folks" :)

Adam Tue May 13, 2008 03:39pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Vinski
Watch out for those "old folks" :)

Yup, they tend to forget things.

Vinski Tue May 13, 2008 04:04pm

What if both feet are in-bounds, but the cane is touching out-of-bounds?

Adam Tue May 13, 2008 04:16pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Vinski
What if both feet are in-bounds, but the cane is touching out-of-bounds?

Not sure, I've never officiated the Jurassic League.

Jurassic Referee Tue May 13, 2008 05:07pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Vinski
What if both feet are in-bounds, but the cane is touching out-of-bounds?

http://www.ncaauofficials.com/images/referee_blind.gif

Back In The Saddle Tue May 13, 2008 05:14pm

Just to further clarify (or muddy, depending on your POV)...

If a person is touching two areas simultaneously, he's in the one he probably doesn't want to be in.

IB + OOB = OOB
In the key + out of the key = in the key
Backcourt + frontcourt = backcourt
2 point area + 3 point area = 2 point area

And OOB trumps all. So OOB + frontcourt + backcourt = OOB.

Adam Tue May 13, 2008 05:17pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Back In The Saddle
Just to further clarify (or muddy, depending on your POV)...

If a person is touching two areas simultaneously, he's in the one he probably doesn't want to be in.

IB + OOB = OOB

Unless he's the thrower for a throw-in. :D

M&M Guy Tue May 13, 2008 05:19pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Back In The Saddle
OOB + frontcourt + backcourt

One foot + second foot +... :eek:

Camron Rust Tue May 13, 2008 05:54pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Back In The Saddle
Just to further clarify (or muddy, depending on your POV)...

If a person is touching two areas simultaneously, he's in the one he probably doesn't want to be in.

In the key + out of the key = in the key

Also, a player who has one foot touching out of the key with the other foot in the air having last touched in the key is in the key....very different than the inbounds concept. To be out of the key, both feet must touch the floor out of the key.

Nevadaref Tue May 13, 2008 06:08pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by M&M Guy
One foot + second foot +... :eek:

His cane, obviously! :D

Mark Padgett Tue May 13, 2008 06:11pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Vinski
What if both feet are in-bounds, but the cane is touching out-of-bounds?

That's fifteen yards for unsportsmanlike caneduct. :o

BillyMac Tue May 13, 2008 06:23pm

Good Point ...
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Camron Rust
Also, a player who has one foot touching out of the key with the other foot in the air having last touched in the key is in the key....very different than the inbounds concept. To be out of the key, both feet must touch the floor out of the key.

Good point regarding three second violations. Rookie officials, please take note.

BillyMac Tue May 13, 2008 06:29pm

Interesting Situation ...
 
Here's an interesting out of bounds situation.

NFHS 9-3-2 Note: The dribbler has committed a violation if he/she steps on or outside a boundary, even though he/she is not touching the ball while he/she is out of bounds.

JugglingReferee Tue May 13, 2008 08:19pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BillyMac
Here's an interesting out of bounds situation.

NFHS 9-3-2 Note: The dribbler has committed a violation if he/she steps on or outside a boundary, even though he/she is not touching the ball while he/she is out of bounds.

Good point regarding the offensive team violation. Rookie officials, please take note.

However, please expand on the point at which a violation shall be called.

Play: the dribbler dribbles the ball by pushing it to the ground. While the ball is airborne (or touching the floor for that instant), the dribbler's feet touch OOB. Violation yet? If not, continue: the dribbler's feet touch back inbounds before the ball (bounced up again from the floor) is touched by the dribbler. Violation now?

Adam Tue May 13, 2008 10:10pm

It's a violation as soon as a player in control of the ball steps out of bounds. A dribbler is in control from the start.

Back In The Saddle Tue May 13, 2008 11:02pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Snaqwells
Unless he's the thrower for a throw-in. :D

Different issue, of course. If the thrower touches over the OOB line, while still touching OOB (or not), he has carried the ball onto the court. That's not a matter of the definition of player location, he's still located OOB. Rather he's committed a specific throw-in violation.

Come to think of it, that's the only case that comes to mind where the location of the other foot matters.

Jurassic Referee Wed May 14, 2008 05:30am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Snaqwells
It's a violation as soon as a player in control of the ball steps out of bounds.

Rules citation?:confused:

JugglingReferee Wed May 14, 2008 07:31am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Rules citation?:confused:

I believe that this play is made clearest with a case, rather than a rule.

Jurassic Referee Wed May 14, 2008 09:31am

Quote:

Originally Posted by JugglingReferee
I believe that this play is made clearest with a case, rather than a rule.

Rule or case book play, I don't care. I just want a reference.

Can you, or anybody else , cite a case book play that will back up Snaq's contention that it's a immediate violation as soon as the dribbler steps on the OOB line, even though the dribbler isn't in contact with the ball at that time?

Ch1town Wed May 14, 2008 09:34am

Unfortunately I don't have my book with me today, but I do recall reading that

it's a immediate violation as soon as the dribbler steps on the OOB line, even though the dribbler isn't in contact with the ball at that time

in a NOTE under a rule.

Where's Nevada @?

JugglingReferee Wed May 14, 2008 09:39am

Good call Ch1town! I forgot about that note's existance.

Rule 9, Section 3:
ART. 1 . . . A player shall not cause the ball to go out of bounds.
ART. 2 . . . A player shall not leave the floor for an unauthorized reason.
NOTE: The dribbler has committed a violation if he/she steps on or outside a boundary, even though he/she is not touching the ball while he/she is out of bounds.
PENALTY (Section 3) The ball is dead when the violation occurs and is awarded to the opponents for a throw-in from the designated out-of-bounds spot nearest the violation. (See 6-7-9 Exception 4)

I'll have to remember that notes can often relay the same information that a nice case would.

just another ref Wed May 14, 2008 09:40am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Snaqwells
It's a violation as soon as a player in control of the ball steps out of bounds.


Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Rules citation?:confused:

9-3-1 note: The dribbler has committed a violation if he/she steps on or outside a boundary, even though he/she is not touching the ball while he/she is out of bounds.

Jurassic Referee Wed May 14, 2008 09:55am

Cool, guys. Now point out to me where in that rule it actually says <b>WHEN</b> the violation occurs?

Please cite me some rules language, please, that states that the violation occurs on the step and not when the dribbler touches the ball again.

What is your call if the dribbler going up the right side steps on the OOB line without being in contact with the ball, and then hangs an immediate left and runs away from the ball without touching it again, and a teammate comes and gets the ball?

Note that the definition of a dribble states that it's ball movement caused by a player <b>batting</b> the ball to the floor. Rule 4-15-1.

Note that the definition of a "pass" in rule 4-31 says that it can be a player <b>batting</b> the ball to another player.

Soooooo, please tell me how y'all definitively know that the player that steps on an OOB line without touching the ball, and then doesn't touch it <b>again</b>, hasn't <b>ENDED</b> their dribble with a pass? Please tell me you how you can a violation on a "dribbler" who isn't a "dribbler" but is a "passer''...and by rules definition(4-31), has "passed" the ball before stepping on the line? Don't you stop being a "dribbler" when you "pass" the ball?

We've been through this one many times before- <i>ad infinitum</i>, <i>ad nauseum</i>. If anyone can cite definitive language to call a violation before the ball is touched again, please do so. Meanwhile, I ain't gonna argue it any further unless someone can cite some rules to back up their argument.

just another ref Wed May 14, 2008 10:05am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Cool, guys. Now point out to me where in that rule it actually says <b>WHEN</b> the violation occurs?

Please cite me some rules language, please, that states that the violation occurs on the step and not when the dribbler touches the ball again.


"The dribbler has committed a violation if he/she steps on or outside a boundary...."

It could have said: The dribbler has committed a violation when he touches the ball after stepping on or outside a boundary.

How do we know it was a dribble and not a pass? We were watching the game. How do you ever award two shots for a foul in the act of shooting?
That could have been a pass, too.

Ch1town Wed May 14, 2008 10:08am

Whoa JR you took it a steps further.
I thought what we were discussing was a dribbler stepping OOB & continuing the dribble.

If the dribbler steps OOB but doesn't touch the ball again after that, then I believe one should pass on a violation. Even though I've never seen that sitch it doesn't mean that it won't happen.
That being said, watch it happen to me in a camp setting! At least I now have a point of reference to be prepared when/if that ever happens.

I love this site!

JugglingReferee Wed May 14, 2008 10:17am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Cool, guys. Now point out to me where in that rule it actually says WHEN the violation occurs?

Please cite me some rules language, please, that states that the violation occurs on the step and not when the dribbler touches the ball again.

What is your call if the dribbler going up the right side steps on the OOB line without being in contact with the ball, and then hangs an immediate left and runs away from the ball without touching it again, and a teammate comes and gets the ball?

Note that the definition of a dribble states that it's ball movement caused by a player batting the ball to the floor. Rule 4-15-1.

Note that the definition of a "pass" in rule 4-31 says that it can be a player batting the ball to another player.

Soooooo, please tell me how y'all definitively know that the player that steps on an OOB line without touching the ball, and then doesn't touch it again, hasn't ENDED their dribble with a pass? Please tell me you how you can a violation on a "dribbler" who isn't a "dribbler" but is a "passer''...and by rules definition(4-31), has "passed" the ball before stepping on the line? Don't you stop being a "dribbler" when you "pass" the ball?

We've been through this one many times before- ad infinitum, ad nauseum. If anyone can cite definitive language to call a violation before the ball is touched again, please do so. Meanwhile, I ain't gonna argue it any further unless someone can cite some rules to back up their argument.

If your goal was to point out that a hole (may) exist in the rulebook, I agree with you. However, to call the play according to the rule, I think the Fed's intent is rather clear. And in the end, is it a dribble or is it a pass; isn't what why we get paid the big bucks. ;)

just another ref Wed May 14, 2008 12:36pm

I looked back at an old thread on this same subject and found:

http://forum.officiating.com/showthread.php?t=10826

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

As soon as A1 touches OOB, it's a violation. He does not have to touch the ball again.


JugglingReferee Wed May 14, 2008 12:40pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by just another ref
I looked back at an old thread on this same subject and found:

Link to this thread?

Jurassic Referee Wed May 14, 2008 01:11pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by JugglingReferee
Link to this thread?

There's been a thread every year since 2003 on this situation. It's almost like the Annual Baseball Thread.

Same arguments every year....still no definitive answer.

just another ref Wed May 14, 2008 01:48pm

"The dribbler has committed a violation if he/she steps on or outside a boundary......."


We know what a dribbler is. We know what a boundary is. We know what a violation is. Sounds pretty definitive to me.

BillyMac Wed May 14, 2008 06:08pm

Touch The Line, Blow The Whistle ...
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by just another ref
"The dribbler has committed a violation if he/she steps on or outside a boundary......."We know what a dribbler is. We know what a boundary is. We know what a violation is. Sounds pretty definitive to me.

I agree, but would love a case book play on this, or a directive from the NFHS. Jurassic Referee has a good point, I disagree with him, but he has a good point, theoretically, if not realistically.

Adam Wed May 14, 2008 09:56pm

It'll happen less often than a legal shot block after the ball hits the glass.
My opinion (I know, it's just that) is that the player is in control while dribbling. If he realizes, after stepping out of bounds, that the he needs to relinquish control, it's too late. And yes, I think you can tell by his actions whether the dribble became interrupted before or after he stepped OOB.

Jurassic Referee Thu May 15, 2008 06:32am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Snaqwells
My opinion (I know, it's just that) is that the player is in control while dribbling. If he realizes, after stepping out of bounds, that the he needs to relinquish control, it's too late. And yes, I think you can tell by his actions whether the dribble became interrupted before or after he stepped OOB.

Agree....except for the "too late" part. There's no rules backing that I know of that will back up your saying that.

If he doesn't touch the ball again after stepping OOB, the dribble was either interrupted or ended. There are no other options afaik, rules-wise. And if you call it an "interrupted dribble", that means it became an interrupted dribble when it was last touched. And if the interrupted dribble started <b>before</b> the player stepped OOB, that means that the player <b>wasn't</b> a "dribbler" <b>when</b> he stepped OOB.....which means that... ergo, ipso facto and tierra del fuego.... R9-3-1NOTE can't apply. The same logic also applies to a dribble that has ended.

Yes, there is player control during a dribble. Rules say so. Yes, there is also no player control during an interrupted dribble. Rules say that also. What is being debated is when an "interrupted dribble" begins. Common sense tells you that an interrupted dribble has to start when it's touched <b>last</b>. And if the player doesn't touch the ball <b>again</b> after stepping OOB, you <b>know</b> when the last touch occurred. If it's touched <b>last</b> before the player stepped OOB, I can't find any rules backing anywhere to apply R9-3 because the player isn't a "dribbler".

Of course in real life, if you make this call, the ball will have bounced back up and been touched again anyway after the dribbler stepped OOB, making all of these arguments moot. It's a bang-bang play, taking less than a second probably. If you ever do run into a ballplayer though that is smart enough to walk away from the ball after stepping OOB(extremely unlikely), I'd hate to penalize that player without proper rules backing. And I still can't find anything in the rule or case book that definitively backs up your statement that the violation must be called immediately when the player steps OOB.

Sooooooo.....to sum up:
http://www.gifs.net/other/crit_suc.gif

just another ref Thu May 15, 2008 08:09am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Snaqwells
My opinion (I know, it's just that) is that the player is in control while dribbling. If he realizes, after stepping out of bounds, that the he needs to relinquish control, it's too late. And yes, I think you can tell by his actions whether the dribble became interrupted before or after he stepped OOB.




Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Agree....except for the "too late" part. There's no rules backing that I know of that will back up your saying that.

If he doesn't touch the ball again after stepping OOB, the dribble was either interrupted or ended. There are no other options afaik, rules-wise. And if you call it an "interrupted dribble", that means it became an interrupted dribble when it was last touched.

If the player himself doesn't realize it until it happens, then whatever he may do to abandon the dribble is indeed too late. A dribble is a dribble on the way to the floor and back again, not just on the touch. The interrupted dribble could start at any time, not just at last touch.

BillyMac Thu May 15, 2008 07:18pm

E Pluribus Unum Right Back At You ...
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Ergo, ipso facto and tierra del fuego

Jurassic Referee: I didn't take Latin in high school. Of course, way back then, it wasn't a dead language yet. My two friends Julius and Augustus spoke it all the time when they were at home with their parents. Translation please?

JugglingReferee Thu May 15, 2008 08:39pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BillyMac
Jurassic Referee: I didn't take Latin in high school. Of course, way back then, it wasn't a dead language yet. My two friends Julius and Augustus spoke it all the time when they were at home with their parents. Translation please?

http://babelfish.yahoo.com/

No latin though. :(

Nevadaref Thu May 15, 2008 08:56pm

Quote:
<TABLE cellSpacing=0 cellPadding=6 width="100%" border=0><TBODY><TR><TD class=alt2 style="BORDER-RIGHT: 1px inset; BORDER-TOP: 1px inset; BORDER-LEFT: 1px inset; BORDER-BOTTOM: 1px inset">Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Ergo, ipso facto and tierra del fuego
</TD></TR></TBODY></TABLE>
That was a highly amusing line by the ole dinosaur! :) I got a nice chuckle out of it.

bob jenkins Fri May 16, 2008 07:47am

Quote:

Originally Posted by BillyMac
Jurassic Referee: I didn't take Latin in high school. Of course, way back then, it wasn't a dead language yet. My two friends Julius and Augustus spoke it all the time when they were at home with their parents. Translation please?

"ergo" is one of those frozen breakfast pastries that you cook in a toaster.

"ipso" is a mistake (our current word "oops" comes from it)

"facto" means the statement is true ("fact")

"tierra del fuego" is a refernece to a certain body funtion / expulsion that occurs 20 minutes after eating an "ergo" (literally, "mud of fire.")

So, JR is saying that your post, in fact, reminds him of what happens after he mistakenly eats a frozen waffle.

AS such, his post is clearly a flame, and should be deleted.

Jurassic Referee Fri May 16, 2008 08:19am

Quote:

Originally Posted by bob jenkins
"ergo" is one of those frozen breakfast pastries that you cook in a toaster.

"ipso" is a mistake (our current word "oops" comes from it)

"facto" means the statement is true ("fact")

"tierra del fuego" is a referenece to a certain body function / expulsion that occurs 20 minutes after eating an "ergo" (literally, "mud of fire.")

So, JR is saying that your post, in fact, reminds him of what happens after he mistakenly eats a frozen waffle.

AS such, his post is clearly a flame, and should be deleted.

<i>"Lergo my ergo"</i>.....

It's <i>facto</i>, it's <i>facto</i>......

Adam Fri May 16, 2008 08:50am

Quote:

Originally Posted by bob jenkins
AS such, his post is clearly a flame, and should be deleted.

That's a fact!

Back In The Saddle Fri May 16, 2008 08:51am

Quote:

Originally Posted by bob jenkins
"ergo" is one of those frozen breakfast pastries that you cook in a toaster.

"ipso" is a mistake (our current word "oops" comes from it)

"facto" means the statement is true ("fact")

"tierra del fuego" is a refernece to a certain body funtion / expulsion that occurs 20 minutes after eating an "ergo" (literally, "mud of fire.")

So, JR is saying that your post, in fact, reminds him of what happens after he mistakenly eats a frozen waffle.

AS such, his post is clearly a flame, and should be deleted.

ROFLMAO

This gets my vote for post of the month!!! :D

just another ref Fri May 16, 2008 10:30am

Another famous intellectual often used his own version of one of the above expressions, "ipso fatso." This, of course, was Archie Bunker. Come to think of it, I think that Archie also believed that a dribble was not a dribble until it was touched again by the dribbler after hitting the floor.

Ch1town Fri May 16, 2008 10:41am

Quote:

Originally Posted by just another ref
Another famous intellectual often used his own version of one of the above expressions, "ipso fatso." This, of course, was Archie Bunker.

Was that the same guy that said "bang, zoom, to the moon" or did they just live in the same neighborhood?

M&M Guy Fri May 16, 2008 11:34am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Ch1town
Was that the same guy that said "bang, zoom, to the moon" or did they just live in the same neighborhood?

Wow, you must be one of them young pups.

Archie Bunker was the character in the series, "All in the Family", which ran in the 1970's. Carrol O'Connor played Archie.

Ralph Kramden of the Honeymooners was the one that uttered the phrase, "I hope they like those jokes on the moon, Alice, 'cause that's where you're goin'...bang...zoom". The Honeymooners started as a sketch on the Jackie Gleason show back in the '50's, and I believe became it's own show in the late '50's.

Both shows were set in the NY city area, but I don't think it was the same neighborhood.

I'd tell you more, but I don't watch much TV. :rolleyes:

BillyMac Fri May 16, 2008 07:29pm

Check The White Pages ...
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by M&M Guy
Archie Bunker was the character in the series, "All in the Family". Ralph Kramden of "The Honeymooners". Both shows were set in the NY city area, but I don't think it was the same neighborhood.

The Bunkers lived at 704 Howser Street, Queens, New York.

The Kramdens lived at 328 Chauncey Street, Bensonhurst, Brooklyn, New York.

Back In The Saddle Fri May 16, 2008 11:54pm

The Honeymooners was also the basis for The Flintstones.


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