Backcourt violation or not?

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by bannind

It is not a violation as described in the first post. Yes a deflection or tap ends the throwin, but it does not establish front/backcourt possession.

I believe the situation that will cause the most problems, because of the clarification of when a throwin ends, is with momentum causing a player who catches a ball with one foot in the front court and momentum carries them into the back court. While legal if during a throwin, if the ball has been deflected (in a manner that is considered a legal touch) and A1 gains control of the ball with one foot in the front court and momentum takes them into the back court - at that point there is a violation. That is because the consideration to allow a players momentum to legally take them into the back court only exists during a throwin. If the ball has been legally touched the throwin is over and that consideration no longer exists.

But in reference to the original posters question - there would be no violation.

but that is just my reading on the rules.

Don't take this the wrong way but.....do you even bother to read what everybody else is posting?

Bob Jenkins has already said above that the the NFHS posted the correct ruling on their web site. The FED ruling is that it IS a violation. How can you then say that it's your reading of the rules when you obviously didn't bother to read the rules.

http:..http://www.nfhs.org/web/2007/10/2007...s_interpr.aspx
See Situation #6. Note that it's the exact play described in the original post of this thread.

Also note that is probably the third or fourth thread about the exact same play. The ruling ain't gonna change, folks.