I realize that this will rarely happen, but I wanted to post a sitch that would sufficiently entertain what I consider a mostly learned panel. Enjoy!

In a previous post, it was discussed if a member of a team caused an unsportsmanlike act to warrant a technical foul after time had expired, wether or not the free throws would be attempted if they would affect the outcome of the game. If memory serves, most of posts seem to state that you would shoot the free throws, to which I agree. Here is the wrinkle.

Team A down by 3 and A1 attempts a 2 point attempt (let's say they wanted a 3 point shot but the foot was clearly on the line) and is fouled as time expires, shot misses. Now, player B1 speaks or commits an unsportsmanlike act (a) prior to reporting (b) during reporting (c)after reporting and attempting to leave the conifes of the area (but still on the court).

Would you, by rule, enforce all 4 free throws in any of these situations?

IMHO, I say yes to all three. Although awkward in its application, a condition now exsists where free throws could determine the outcome of a game. Even if you wouldn't have shot the free throws in situation (c) if you hadn't assessed the the technical foul.

I agree. And, if you had enough multiple, technical and intentional fouls you could shoot lots of throws after the game was "over."

Looks like a concensus
 

It all seems logical.:)

I think you would start to shoot all free throws that are to be awarded. Would you, however, stop shooting the FT's at any point at which it will not change the outcome of the game? For example, if the shooter misses the first two (out of four awarded in your case) free throws, and they are down by three, game over. The foul and technical still go in the book, but no more shots.

As soon as the outcome is determined, stop shooting the throws. See 5.6.3D

I view it as suspending the FTs until the score is approved and the officials are "gone". If anything happend in the interim, the FTs will be shot if the outcome could be affected.