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Old Mon Nov 19, 2001, 03:02pm
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Join Date: Sep 2001
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Question

My association has given us the NFHS part II from last year as a refresher for this year.

One of the questions has me stumped. I`ve lost my casebook so I can`t check the listing there.

Q52 If the ball is in contact with both A1 and A2, it is in A`s frontcourt if one of the players is touching in A`s frontcourt.

The language is ambiguous here. What do they mean by touching. Both feet across the line or just one. Also, if one of the players is in back court and still touching the ball, this would certainly cause a problem.

If by saying that touching the frontcourt is both feet, my feeling would be to say that the ball is in the frontcourt (true) If both feet aren`t across the line, it`s obviously not in the frontcourt yet (FALSE).

Any thoughts would be appreciated.

Ren
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Old Mon Nov 19, 2001, 03:06pm
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Seems to me the ball has BC status because it is in contact with a player who has BC status. How would you rule if one player was OOB and one IB? The ball is OOB. (I don't have my books with me.)
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Old Mon Nov 19, 2001, 03:43pm
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I would interpret it as meaning at least one of the team A members has backcourt status (if only one is touching the FC). In that case, the ball would also have backcourt status.
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Old Mon Nov 19, 2001, 04:25pm
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Join Date: Nov 2001
Location: Arlington, TX
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Talk about timing. I am new at this and was reviewing some things before my game tonight and just read this.

4-4-1 "A ball which is in contact with a player or with the court is in the backcourt if either the ball or the player (either player if the ball is touching more than one) is touching the backcourt."

Hope I cited it correctly. Guess reading the book pays off after all.

[Edited by LarryS on Nov 19th, 2001 at 04:24 PM]
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