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Johnny Ringo Fri Feb 09, 2007 03:43am

Violation?
 
Have seen these called both ways this week and am now confused. A1 inbounds ball in FC. Ball is passed to A2 who tips the ball in FC and then runs into BC to recover? Backcourt violation or not?

BoomerSooner Fri Feb 09, 2007 05:11am

Because no team control has been established yet, this is not a BC violation. Simply touching the ball does not establish control and therefore the requirement of having team control in the front court has not been met, thus no violation should be called.

Nevadaref Fri Feb 09, 2007 05:20am

Those calling this a violation were incorrect. That should clear up your confusion. :)

Jurassic Referee Fri Feb 09, 2007 07:09am

Case book play 4.12.6(b)

Scrapper1 Fri Feb 09, 2007 09:17am

This is legal even in NCAA, where there is team control during the throw-in.

SamIAm Fri Feb 09, 2007 09:59am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Johnny Ringo
Have seen these called both ways this week and am now confused. A1 inbounds ball in FC. Ball is passed to A2 who tips the ball in FC and then runs into BC to recover? Backcourt violation or not?

If "A1 inbounds" and "Ball is passed" are the same action, No violation. If they are separate actions, Violation.

Johnny Ringo Fri Feb 09, 2007 01:45pm

I was certain of that it not being a violation and then I was at an NCAA Women's game and saw an official call this a violation ... I immediately looked at the other two officials and they had no look on their face like it was a bad call ... therefore, my confusion! And of course no one in the arena said a word because they all don't know the rules anyway! Thanks for assuirng me I was correct.


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