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-   -   Time-out? (https://forum.officiating.com/basketball/30117-time-out.html)

MWI Tue Dec 12, 2006 12:13pm

Time-out?
 
If there is no team or player control during a throw- in and to call a time out there must be team control.. Why can the inbounding team call a time out?

Adam Tue Dec 12, 2006 12:15pm

Because it specifically says they can.

Rule 5-8-3
…Grants a player's/head coach's oral or visual request for a time-out, such request being granted only when:
A. The ball is in control or at the disposal of a player of his/her team.
B. The ball is dead, unless replacement of a disqualified, or injured player(s), or a player directed to leave the game is pending, and a substitute(s) is available and required.

PIAA REF Tue Dec 12, 2006 12:42pm

Tc
 
I believe that there is player control, just not team control, thus you may. Also like Snaqwells said it is a rule

Scrapper1 Tue Dec 12, 2006 12:47pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by PIAA REF
I believe that there is player control,

Player control is established when a player is holding or dribbling a live ball inbounds.

Back In The Saddle Tue Dec 12, 2006 01:35pm

So, not that I'm advocating putting the ball down ('cause this is the second time in two days I'm bringing it up), but if a team is late coming out of a time out for their throw-in, and the official puts the ball down on them, they could then request a second time out, since the ball is at their disposal? Never thought about that before.

bob jenkins Tue Dec 12, 2006 02:12pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Back In The Saddle
So, not that I'm advocating putting the ball down ('cause this is the second time in two days I'm bringing it up), but if a team is late coming out of a time out for their throw-in, and the official puts the ball down on them, they could then request a second time out, since the ball is at their disposal? Never thought about that before.

Yes. And, if we change the situation from a throw in to a free throw, it's the only way for the team to avoid a violation.

bigdogrunnin Tue Dec 12, 2006 02:13pm

Yes, the "offensive" team can request the time out, BUT since the ball is now "at the disposal" of the offensive team, the defensive team cannot call a TO. How DID peach baskets and an old ball become so complicated???

Nevadaref Tue Dec 12, 2006 06:55pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bob jenkins
Yes. And, if we change the situation from a throw in to a free throw, it's the only way for the team to avoid a violation.

Are you sure about that, Bob? ;)

Camron Rust Tue Dec 12, 2006 08:01pm

Quote:
<TABLE cellSpacing=0 cellPadding=6 width="100%" border=0><TBODY><TR><TD class=alt2 style="BORDER-RIGHT: 1px inset; BORDER-TOP: 1px inset; BORDER-LEFT: 1px inset; BORDER-BOTTOM: 1px inset">Originally Posted by bob jenkins
Yes. And, if we change the situation from a throw in to a free throw, it's the only way for the team to avoid a violation.

</TD></TR></TBODY></TABLE>

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
Are you sure about that, Bob? ;)

Hmm. I guess you could come up with some other infractions that would make the ball dead that don't cancel the FT.....Team A could commit a foul, be fouled, have a player leave the court for an unauthorized reason, swing elbows, etc.

Jurassic Referee Tue Dec 12, 2006 08:17pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Camron Rust
Quote:
<TABLE cellSpacing=0 cellPadding=6 width="100%" border=0><TBODY><TR><TD class=alt2 style="BORDER-RIGHT: 1px inset; BORDER-TOP: 1px inset; BORDER-LEFT: 1px inset; BORDER-BOTTOM: 1px inset">Originally Posted by bob jenkins
Yes. And, if we change the situation from a throw in to a free throw, it's the only way for the team to avoid a violation.

</TD></TR></TBODY></TABLE>



Hmm. I guess you could come up with some other infractions that would make the ball dead that don't cancel the FT.....Team A could commit a foul, be fouled, have a player leave the court for an unauthorized reason, swing elbows, etc.

I think that Nevada is referring to the situation where the FT shooter isn't in the semi-circle when the official placed the ball at his disposal. If he comes in now, it's a violation. If he doesn't come in, it's gonna be a 10-second violation. Iow, no matter what, he's screwed.The question is whether calling a TO voids the violation or only delays it until after the TO.

Notice that I said that I <b>think</b> that's what Nevada was getting at.

Nevadaref Wed Dec 13, 2006 03:25am

I actually meant what Camron wrote. Specifically, I was thinking of a foul by Team B (personal or technical). Since the shooter is obviously not going to be in the act of shooting, the ball becomes dead and the FT would be readministered without a violation by Team A.

Of course, I'm being petty and really Bob is right that a time-out is the simplest way for Team A to avoid a violation. It's just not the only way. :)

Nevadaref Wed Dec 13, 2006 03:27am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
The question is whether calling a TO voids the violation or only delays it until after the TO.

FWIW, I believe that the after the TO the shooter would be allowed to enter the FT semi-circle without penalty.

Mark Dexter Wed Dec 13, 2006 08:41am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
The question is whether calling a TO voids the violation or only delays it until after the TO.

I'd vote for no violation. In the situation where B steps in, then we have an A TO before the shot, the violation has actually occurred. We're simply delaying the penalty.

If A1 never stepped into the circle, no violation has occurred (assuming the TO was requested and granted before the 10 second count expired). Therefore, I have no penalty.

(This also fits the general pattern of A being able to use a timeout to avoid certain violations.)

Jurassic Referee Wed Dec 13, 2006 12:02pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Mark Dexter
I'd vote for no violation. In the situation where B steps in, then we have an A TO before the shot, the violation has actually occurred. We're simply delaying the penalty.

<font color = red>If A1 never stepped into the circle, no violation has occurred (assuming the TO was requested and granted before the 10 second count expired). Therefore, I have no penalty.</font>

(This also fits the general pattern of A being able to use a timeout to avoid certain violations.)

Case book play 9.1.7 says "After the ball has been placed at the <b>disposal</b> of the free thrower, he/she is not permitted to leave <b>or enter</b> the free-throw semi-circle <b>without violating</b>, until restrictions have ended." According to rule 9-10, free throw restrictions are in place until the ball touches the ring or backboard or until the free throw ends.

Thoughts?:)

M&M Guy Wed Dec 13, 2006 12:14pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Case book play 9.1.7 says "After the ball has been placed at the <b>disposal</b> of the free thrower, he/she is not permitted to leave <b>or enter</b> the free-throw semi-circle <b>without violating</b>, until restrictions have ended." According to rule 9-10, free throw restrictions are in place until the ball touches the ring or backboard or until the free throw ends.

Thoughts?:)

Interesting. Now, to bring in an NCAA case into this, let's say A1 has the ball for a FT, and B1 steps in the lane early. The official signals the delayed dead ball. Then, A's coach asks for, and is granted a TO. After the TO, we line up for the FT, and the delayed violation continues. Iow, if A1 misses, they are granted a replacement FT, because the TO does not wipe away the violation.

Again, this is an NCAA A.R., not a Fed. case play. But, in this case, the violation has already occured. In JR's case, a violation has not yet occured.

Hmm...


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